| Question 1 |
| Question 24 | |
| Question 16 | |
| Question 7 | Clinical signs: basal ganglia bleed, C5 injury, critical illness myopathy |
| Question 24 | Polyuria following brain injury, except it's SAH |
| Question 6.1 | |
| Question 5 | Acute behavioural disturbance - a spicy variation on delirium |
| Question 28 | |
| Question 4 | Non-convulsive status epilepticus - diagnosis, risk factors, management |
| Question 1 | Fever in the neurosurgical patient: ventriculitis |
| Question 27 | |
| Question 5 |
| Question 5 | Myasthenic crisis - management and extubation |
| Question 29 | |
| Question 28.4 | CSF analysis: does this look infected to you? |
| Question 17 | |
| Question 12 | Encephalitis: specifically autoimmune encephalitis |
| Question 29 | Management of raised ICP: sudden re-bleed following an MCA aneurysm clipping |
| Question 27 | Guillain-Barre syndrome: when to admit them to ICU |
| Question 29.2 | |
| Question 25 |
| Question 24 | |
| Question 9 |
| Question 30 | |
| Question 22 | Guillain-Barre syndrome: prevention of infectious complications |
| Question 6 | "How is this not PRES?" A comparison of PRES and HSV encephalitis |
| Question 4 |
| Question 21 | Encephalitis of unknown aetiology: diagnostic workup and management |
| Question 14.3 | Stroke syndromes: lateral medullary syndrome |
| Question 14.1 | Causes of unconsciousness: with extensor plantar responses |
| Question 10 | Transverse myelitis: clinical features, diagnosis and treament |
| Question 27 | Cranial nerve signs: medullary infarct, CN III, bulbar palsy, mydriasis, |
| Question 10 |
| Question 30.2 | Pupillary signs: coma with bilateral miosis |
| Question 25 | Decompressive Craniectomy for traumatic brain injury |
| Question 10 | |
| Question 3 |
| Question 27 | Management of delirium, or more accurately aggressive psychosis |
| Question 23 | |
| Question 17 | |
| Question 3 | Grading of subarachnoid haemorrhage severity - WFNS vs Fisher score |
| Question 24 |
| Question 27 | |
| Question 15.3 | Tension pneumoencephalus |
| Question 8 | Acute management of stroke in the ICU - supportive and definitive. |
| Question 21 | Causes of, and specific management of status epilepticus |
| Question 19 | Brain herniation: radiological and clinical features |
| Question 12 | Delirium in the ICU: definition, causes, risk factors, management |
| Question 27 | "Neuroprotective measures" - prevention of secondary brain injury |
| Question 20 | Guillain Barre syndrome vs. something (this time, myasthenia gravis) |
| Question 14.1 | Posterior reversible leukoencephalopathy syndrome (PRES), thanks to infliximab |
| Question 26 | |
| Question 6 | Management of raised ICP: sudden re-bleed following an MCA aneurysm clipping |
| Question 21.1 | Examination of the pupils: three causes of coma where there is miosis |
| Question 16 | Management of Status Epilepticus in ICU in the context of a subarachnoid haemorrhage. |
| Question 2 |
| Question 27 | Intracranial pressure as a therapeutic target: advantages and disadvantages of ICP monitoring |
| Question 25 | |
| Question 21.3 | |
| Question 21.2 | |
| Question 21.1 | The dermatomes - "Name This Dermatome" |
| Question 10.1 | Horner's Syndrome, and other features of a lateral medullary syndrome |
| Question 6 | Delirium in the ICU define it and "describe your management approach". |
| Question 3.2 | |
| Question 2 | Monitoring for vasospasm following SAH: advantages and disadvantages of diagnostic options |
| Question 22 | Definitive management options for early ischaemic stroke: indications and contra-indications. |
| Question 15 | |
| Question 14.3 | Clinical features which distinguish brachial plexus lesions from ulnar nerve lesions. |
| Question 14.1 | |
| Question 10 | Guillain Barre syndrome vs. something (this time, critical illness polyneuromyopathy) |
| Question 5 | Monitoring for vasospasm following SAH, as well as its prevention and management |
| Question 20 | Non-convulsive status epilepticus: definition, diagnosis, risk factors, management. |
| Question 15.3 | Fundoscopy: characteristic findings and their correlations with pathology. |
| Question 25 | |
| Question 22 | The Glasgow Coma Scale in the assessment of consciousness: its utility and its limitations. |
| Question 28 | Management of raised intracranial pressure. Also, risk factors for post-traumatic seizures. |
| Question 26.2 | Examination of the cranial nerves: localisation of a midbrain lesion by CN III palsy. |
| Question 26.1 | Physical signs of cerebellar disease: only head signs, please. |
| Question 22.1 | Polyuria following traumatic brain injury. What has caused it? |
| Question 13 |
| Question 25.4 | Oculocephalic reflex (CN III, IV, VI and VIII) - what does a normal one tell you? |
| Question 25.2 | Horner's Syndrome; specifically, the anatomical sites where the lesion may have occurred. |
| Question 19 |
| Question 5.2 | Methods of intracranial pressure monitoring: 4 clinical signs of raised ICP. |
| Question 3.2 | Prognosis in severe brain injury. What determines it? |
| Question 3.1 | Polyuria following traumatic brain injury. What has caused it? |
| Question 27 | |
| Question 8 | Methods of intracranial pressure monitoring: compare the EVD and the Codman catheter. |
| Question 3.1 |
| Question 29 | |
| Question 25.1 | Methods of intracranial pressure monitoring: indications for CT head before lumbar puncture. |
| Question 12.4 | Physical signs of cerebellar disease: ones which do not involve the limbs |
| Question 11 | |
| Question 1 | A critique of cerebral perfusion pressure as a therapeutic target. |
| Question 24.5 | |
| Question 24.4 | Examination of eye movements: Causes of a persistent right-sided conjugate gaze deviation. |
| Question 16 | |
| Question 9 | Decompressive craniectomy: indications, complications, influence on outcome. |
| Question 14 | |
| Question 11.3 | "Does this CSF look infected to you?" .. an epidural abscess |
| Question 11.1 | |
| Question 7.2 |
| Question 27.2 | |
| Question 8 | Monitoring for vasospasm following SAH: advantages and disadvantages of various techniques. |
| Question 16 | A comparison of states of persistent unconsciousness |
| Question 7 | Prognosis in moderate brain injury: ICU vs HDU admission |
| Question 3 | Polyuria following brain injury. A variation on the theme of hypernatremia |
| Question 30 | Approach to the unconscious patient in the ICU: causes of delayed awakening. |
| Question 11 | Factors which influence prognosis in severe brain injury |
| Question 10 | |
| Question 5 | |
| Question 4 | Osmotherapy for management of raised intracranial pressure: hypertonic saline. |
| Question 26 | Acute supportive management for stroke in the ICU (specifically, a brainstem stroke). |
| Question 24 | |
| Question 23 | Polyuria following brain injury. A variation on the theme of hypernatremia |
| Question 20 |
| Question 22 | |
| Question 5 | Approach to the ICU patient with generalised weakness: GBS, myasthenia gravis and MND. |
| Question 16 | Management of the unsecured aneurysm in subarachnoid haemorrhage: coiling vs. clipping. |
| Question 4 | |
| Question 2 | The utility of the EEG and of Somatosensory Evoked Potentials (SSEPs) in the ICU. |
| Question 15 | Approach to the unconscious patient in the ICU: SAH after clipping. |
| Question 12 |
| Question 12 |
| Question 15 |
| Question 10 | Causes of Horner's Syndrome |
| Question 15 | |
| Question 5 |
| Question 8 |
| Question 15 | The significance of persistent "hiccoughs" in a ventilated ICU patient. |
| Question 2 | Assessment of swallowing function in a critically ill patient: the effects of a tracheostomy. |