A 28-year-old male has been involved in a high-speed motor vehicle crash and admitted to your hospital. His initial GCS at the scene was 5 (E2, V2, M1). He has been intubated and has a hard collar in place.
a) Outline your approach to clearing the cervical spine in this man. Justify your answer.
b) List the potential problems associated with the inability to clear the cervical spine at an early stage.
Or:
If no bony injury but need to exclude ligamentous injury, perform MRI.
There is no 100% accurate method to exclude C-spine injury and management is a balance of risk-benefit for that individual. In some cases clearing the C-spine early may not be possible and leaving the collar in situ is a balance between management of potentially “unstable” C-spine and the risk of complications from the collar.
b)
This question closely resembles Question 4 from the second paper of 2011.