Printable list of all cardiology SAQs

[Click here to toggle visibility of the answers]

[Click here to toggle printing every question on a separate page]

Question 2a - 2000, Paper 1

A 58 year old man is brought in by ambulance moribund with barely palpable pulse and a sinus tachycardia.

(a) Outline you management in the first fifteen minutes. 

College Answer

A case of near electromechanical dissociation  in a 58 year old man. This could be caused by hypovolaemic shock. anaphylaxis or cardiogenic shock etc. Therefore the candidate should have started with a comprehensive approach and be directed to specific problems.

(a) An outline is requested but it should contain some rationale. eg:

•  A/B if the patient is breathing and talking apply a 100% oxygen mask. If not. bag with face mask and high·flow (h.   LOC may improve rapidly with BP restoration, but if not, intubation and ventilation will be necessary.

•  Quickly assess the patient's volume status (JVP visible?, veins engorged). Establish best venous access  possible (peripheral IV. external jugular, femoral). If the patient appears hypovolaemic. commence bolus of fluid. Continue fluid boluses until filling  pressures appear adequate as judged by rise in NP, CVP (or PAOP) or occurrence of worsening respiratory distress(? pulmonary.oedema).

•  If the patient is not hypovolaemic on arrival or remains hypotensive despite achieving adequate filling pressures give 1mg increments of araminc and commence an inoconstrictor infusion.

•     As soon as possible insert an intra·arterial cannula. It is possible that the central BP is adequate.

Meanwhile, a primary survey should be undertaken to determine the cause and a detailed history sought. Life-threatening injuries arc excluded. The patient is quickly examined from head to foot for signs of anaphylaxis (erythema, wheals etc), cardiac failure or tamponade (venous congestion, raised JVP). Tension pneumothorax or sepsis (hot. flushed, local signs) etc.

Investigations and initial treatments should be guided by the history and signs eg. intercostal catheter.pericardio--centesis.·

Discussion

This 58 year old gentleman is about to have a PEA arrest. Perhaps "moribund" is probably not a very precise medical term, but according to the all-knowing oracle of Wikipedia it refers to a "literal or figurative state of near death", which is appropriate to describe a man with a barely palpable rapid pulse.

However difficult to palpate, the pulse is still palpable.

The patient has not yet arrested.

One's priorities, then, are to assess this patient, rapidly determine the cause of his hemodynamic instability, and reverse the immediately reversible factors.

Perhaps he has not arrested yet. Still, the 4 Hs and 4Ts apply:

  • Hypoxia
  • Hypovolemia
  • Hyper/hypokalemia
  • Hyper/hypothermia
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Tamponade (i.e. cardiac tamponade)
  • Toxins (eg. anaphylactic reaction or intoxication)
  • Thrombus (eg. a PE or MI)

Thus, a stepwise approach to this problem would be something resembling the following:

1) Ensure personal safety

2) Perform a basic peri-arrest primary survey

  • Immediate assessment to diagnose cardiac arrest
    • Are they awake?
    • If they appear unconscious, shake them and ask "Are you alright?"
    • If they are unresponsive, look listen and feel for respiratory effort.
    • If the patient is unconscious, unresponsive, and is not breathing, call for help and start CPR.
      Otherwise, move on with the structured approach to prevent cardiac arrest
  • Airway:
    • Assess patency: best done by interrogating the patient. If he provides coherent answers to your questions, his ABCs are unlikely to be desperately compromised. If he does not, one should secure his airway - initially usig unsophisticated techniques (jaw thrush, chin lift), progressing through airway adjuncts to intubation as needed.
    • Look for presence of vomit or foreign body
    • Prepare to progress to intubation
  • Breathing
    • Observe respiratory rate
    • maintain oxygenationintially with high flow oxygen via tight-fitting reservoir mask. A high flow nonrebreather mask not only delivers around 75% FiO2, it also allows one to assess respiratory function by observing the expiratory fogging of the clear plastic, and one can hook up an end-tidal capnometer to it to detect expired CO2.
    • progress to bag-mask ventilation if respiratory arrest occurs
    • Auscultate the chest, percuss it, palpate for surgical emphysema
    • Investigate with ABG and urgent CXR
    • Specific differentials to consider before moving on with the survey:
      • Massive PE (distended neck veins, cyanosis, tachycardia and hypotension)
      • Acute severe asthma (silent hyperexpanded chest, the hint of wheeze)
      • Tension pneumothorax (unequal air entry, deviated trachea, hyper-resonant chest)
      • Massive haemothorax or effusion (unequal air entry, deviated trachea, dull percussion note over the hemithorax)
      • Pulmonary oedema (pink frothy sputum, coarse gurling creps)
  • Circulation
    • Ensure large-bore IV access
    • Measure the blood pressure non-invasively and attach ECG leads for monitoring
    • administer IV fluids as bolus
    • administer readily available vasopressors, eg. metaraminol in order to maintain cerebral perfusion
    • assess for sources of bleeding
    • ABG or FBC to assess Hb, and need for transfusion
    • rapid bedside TTE to assess cardiac chamber volume and contractility
    • Specific differentials to consider before moving on with the survey:
      • Extremes of hypovolemia (collapsed veins, empty chambers, slow capillary refill, dry mucosae, cool extremities, weak rapid pulse)
      • Haemorrhagic shock ( exactly as above but also deathly pallor)
      • Cardiac tamponade (distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds, electrical alternans on ECG)
      • Peri-arrest arrhythmia (eg. VT or SVT)
      • Severe sepsis (mottled skin, fever, hyperdynamic circulation with hypotension)
    • A fluid bolus would be an appropriate reaction in any case. A hand-operated pump giving set with a litre of crystalloid should be set up. Ideally, one should prepare for invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring.
  • Disability/neurology
    • Assess for signs of intracranial catastrophe by performing a brief neurological examination, including pupils and muscle tone/reflexes
    • Test BSL: ensure normoglycaemia
    • Specific differentials to consider before moving on with the survey:
      • Intracranial catastrophe (pupils, focal signs)
      • Seizure (increased tone, exaggerated reflexes, gaze deviation, clonus)
      • Extreme hypoglycaemia
      • Hyperglycaemic coma
      • Extremes of electrolyte derangement (eg. a sodium of 90 or 190)
      • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Exposure/examination
    • Assess for sources of bleeding
    • Examine for features of anaphylaxis
    • Check temperature; ensure normothermia

References

ARC Guideline 11.2: Protocols for Advanced Life Support

 

Additionally, the ARC ALS2 manual contains several chapters dealing with pre-arrest scenarios such as this one.

 

Question 2b - 2000, Paper 1

A 58 year old man is brought in by ambulance moribund with barely palpable pulse and a sinus tachycardia.


(b)  His condition improves with therapy.   When his wife arrives she tells of his recent hip replacement complications by a bleeding duodenal ulcer. What are the likely diagnoses? 
How will you establish the definite diagnosis and why? 

College Answer

(b) This provides some help.but is not definitive. Possible causes still include pulmonary embolus. hypovolaemia from bleeding DU. myocardial infarction etc. A progression from simple/quick investigations to more complex but specific/diagnostic investigations should be outlined. There should have beeo a sense of appropriate priorities.

If there are signs of GIT bleed with hypovolaemia, then fluid resuscitation, NG tube insertion, endoscopy, FBC and coag screen will be indicated  along with anti-ulcer therapy and perhaps surgery.

If there are signs of acute myocardial infarction. in the setting of recent DU, angiogram and angioplasty would be a preferable course perhaps after urgent echo.

If there are signs of massive pulmonary embolus (right  heart failure), and initial tests are supportive (right heart strain on ECG, oligaemic lung on CXR, distended RV on echo), a spiral CT would be indicated with commencement of IV heparin

Discussion

This part of this multi-part question offers some explanation as why the patient is "moribund". In essence, it narrows the differentials generated by the "4 Hs and 4 Ts" approach, which one can use to systematically organise one's diagnostic approach to this peri-arrest scenario in the first part of this question.

In detail:

  • Hypoxia is possible due to pulmonary oedema or atelectasis
  • Hypovolemia is a differential, given the history of GI bleeding
  • Hyper/hypokalemia is now less likely
  • Hyper/hypothermia is also less likely
  • Tension pneumothorax is unlikely given the history
  • Tamponade (i.e. cardiac tamponade) cannot be excluded but again, does not fit the history
  • Toxins (eg. anaphylactic reaction or intoxication) cannot be ruled out, especially given the recent surgery and thus the potential oral antibiotic therapy
  • Thrombus (eg. a PE or MI) is a definite possibility - particularly the PE - given the recent history of orthopaedic surgery

Thus, one would organise the following investigations:

  • Routine bloods to measure urea and haemoglobin, to investigate the possibility of a GI bleed
  • CXR to exclude pneumothorax, atelectasis and APO, as well as to look for subdiaphragmatic gas associated with a perforated duodenal ulcer
  • TTE to investigate myocardial contractility and to look for regional wall motion abnormalities associated with MI. Even a low-skilled interpreter will also be able to rapidly rule out cardiac tamponade and right ventricular dilatatation associated with massive PE.
  • CTPA to exclude massive PE; the CT will also capture a portion of the upper GI tract giving more information regarding the state of affairs in the duodenum.
  • Upper GI endoscopy would be the gold standard to investigate and manage duodenal bleeding, and one should contact a gastroenterologist to organise this.

The following specific management could be commenced while awaiting results:

  • High flow oxygen therapy
  • Volume resuscitation
  • PPI infusion

Seeing as both bleeding and thrombosis are a part of the differentials, anticoagulation/thrombolysis should be thought about but left until investigations reveal more about the cause of this shock state.

References

Question 2d - 2000, Paper 1

A 58 year old man is brought in by ambulance moribund with barely palpable pulse and a sinus tachycardia. A large pulmonary embolus is confirmed. 

(d) He  suddenly  collapses. He  is  pulseless  and  unconscious  with  a  persistent sinus tachycardia on ECG. What will you do?

College Answer

{d) Ideally, intubate and ventilate with 100%  02, turn  up the noradrenaline, repeat fluid bolus, commence CPR if indicated and transfer immediately to the OT for surgery. In the absence of cardiac surgery 'facilities, one is left with a Trendelenberg operation by a general surgeon or continued medical therapy or risk lysis.

Discussion

This is a question regarding the management of a PEA arrest.

Another question - Question 15 from the first paper of 2011 - discusses the management steps, but with a different history of presentation. The steps are generic, and I will reproduce them here to simplify revision. Additionally, PEA is discussed in greater detail in the answer to Question 8 from the second paper of 2004.

Thus:

1) Confirm cardiac arrest

2) Call for help

3) Commence BSL (CPR) until help arrives;

  • 100 compressions per minute
  • Compression to a depth of 1/3rd of the anterior-posterior chest diamweter
  • Asynchronous ventilation of 8-10 breaths per minute if intubated, otherwise 30 compressions to 2 breaths.
  • Ensure the ETT is not malpositioned (chest examination, end tidal CO2 or calorimetry)

4) With help arriving, follow the non-shockable pathway of the ALS algorithm, which consists of CPR and 1mg adrenaline every 2nd cycle.

4) Work on resolving the cause of the arrest, using the "four Hs and four Ts" as a general guide.

References

The index of ARC guidelines is available from the ARC website.

It contains the relevant algorithm for managing a non-shockable rhythm.

Question 14 - 2000, Paper 1

Discuss the pharmacology and place in the management of severe chronic heart failure of:

(a) enapapril 
(b) spironolactone 
(c) digoxin

College Answer

A big question for ten minutes. Candidates were expected to only·cover the surface. Some kinetics and dynamics and' the role in CCF would be expected,eg:

(a) Enalapril 
Phannacology: prodrug of angiotension II converting enzyme inhibitor enalaprilat. Long half·life,J 1 hours. Well absorbed orally. No IV preparation available. Offset of action due to renal excretion. 
Indications·hypertension, CCF, EF<JS% 
Ag II is now known to have numerous autocrine and paracrine effects. ACE inhibition produces far-reaching effects including-peripheral vasodilation, increased C.O.• myocardial­ remodeling etc. 
Side effects include hypotension, renal failure in the setting of renovascular disease, hypotensive reaction to albumin infusion, hyperkalaemia, and cough. 
Its role in severe chronic heart failure is well established in improving symptoms and exercise capacity, and improving survival due to myocardial and cerebral events.

(b) Spironolactone 
Pharmacology: competitive aldosterone inhibitor. Orally well absorbed. No IV preparation. 
Metabolised in the liver 
Produces K-sparing diuresis via aldosterone blockade. Aldosterone most likely has other roles in blood vessels promoting fibroblast proliferation and dehydration. Side effects include hyperkalaemia, dehydration and gynaeoomastia. Has been shown to produce increased survival in severe CCF (NHYA IV) when added to 
standard regimen of ACEI and loop diuretic. Recent placebo controlled trial stopped early because of marked benefit. Hyperkalaemia was not a problem.

(c) Digoxin 
Non-sympathetic inotrope. Blocks Na-K ATPase and indirectly increases intracellular Ca. 
Well absorbed orally. Renally excreted. Produces:   

-     increased contractility 
-    increased myocardial automaticity 
-    decreased A V conduction. 
Plasma concentration increased by amiodarone, verapramil. 
Side effects include nausea, vomiting, visual disturbance AV  bradycardias, tachycardias 
(flutter with block, VT, VF...). 
Overdose or toxicity may be treated with K. Mg, and antibodies. 
Its role in CCF is well established in patients with AF to control heart rate, improve mortality, exercise tolerance and symptoms. In patients with sinus rhythm and severe CCF unresponsive to other therapy, digoxin may produce improvement in symptoms but not mortality and hospital admission rate.

Discussion

I will agree with the court of examiners. There is too much ground to cover for a few minutes.  Again, perhaps it is better to tabulate this answer.

 

Enalapril

Spironolactone

Digoxin

Class

ACE-inhibitor

mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist

Cardiac glycoside

Pharmacokinetics

Orally available
Renally excreted
Minimal metabolism

Orally available
Hepatic metabolism

Orally available
Renally excreted
Minimal metabolism

Mechanism of action

Antihypertensive; modulates the activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting  the conversion of antiotensinogen into angiotensin by ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme)

Diuretic; inhibits the effects of aldosterone in the cortical collecting duct, disabling the ENaC ion channel and thus increasing the excretion of sodium and water

AV nodal blocker and weak positive inotrope.

Inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase, thereby lowering the intracellular membrane potential and decreasing the excitability of excitable tissues.
Also increases the  availability of intracellular calcium, and thus acts as a positive inotrope).

Advantages in  severe chronic heart failure

Decreased afterload
Improved cardiac remodeling and thus decreased morbidity and mortality

Decreased preload
Improved cardiac remodeling and thus decreased morbidity and mortality

Increased contractility
Rate control in arrhythmia

Precautions

May cause disregulation of renal blood flow. May contribute to renal failure

May cause type 4 renal tubular acidosis, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia.

Gynacomastia in 10%

Requires monitoring in renal failure
Risk of toxicity

The European statement I have referenced below is particularly helpful for this question.

In particular, section 7.2 (entitled "Treatments recommended in potentially all patients with systolic heart failure") lists the pharmacotherapy for heart failure, and provides evidence for it.

Enalapril must have been particularly exciting because of the CONSENSUS study (1988) which demonstrated an improvement in both mortality and NYHA grade. A smiliar high accolade is afforded to spironolactone by the RALES trial - fewer of those people died. Digoxin, on the other hand, does not seem to decrease mortality, but does seem to decrease the symptoms of people even while they are in sinus rhythm.

References

Question 7 - 2000, Paper 2

Outline your ICU management of an ICU patient with ventricular tachycardia

College Answer

Pulseless VT: managed as per cardiac arrest protocol (immediate unsyncbronised defibrillation [up to 3 sequential  shocks  if  necessary],  followed  by CPR  intubation/IV/oxygen, consider antiarrhythmics  (lignocaine, amiodarone, potassium and magnesium], administer  adrenaline 1 mg every 3 minutes, exclude reversible causes [5Hs and 5Ts].

VT with a pulse: if deteriorates or unstable haemodynamically manage as for pulseless VT.If stable administer  oxygen/obtain  IV  access  and  rapidly  exclude  reversible  factors  (including   wire catheter in RV, hypokalaemia,  hypomagnesaemia, others  as indicated  by a systematic  review to exclude  other  reversible  causes.  Drug  therapy  according  to  scenario  but  useful  drugs include lignocaine (for ischaemia/post  cardiac surgery: 1-1.5  mg/kg IV then infusion), procainamide  (50 mglmin to max of 17 mglk.g),sotalol (l mglkg) or amiodarone (5 mg/kg over 20 minutes).

Discussion

The question draws on the candidate's knowledge of recent resuscitation guidelines.

The ARC has a pretty straightforward view of these sort of tachyarrhythmias. If it is hemodynamically usntable, you shock it. If it is haemodynamically stable, you can afford to think about drugs. If it is without pulse, the patient is dead and you should proceed according to the ALS algorithm for shockable rhythms (nowadays we dont do those three shocks anymore).

Thus:

  • Acute management:
    • VT with pulse:
      • haemodynamically stable:
        • control arrhythmia with antiarrhytmic medications
        • Amiodarone is now the preferred agent (ARC guideline 11.9, 2009)
        • 300mg amiodarone over 20-60 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900mg over 24 hrs
        • Class 1a agents like lignocaine are a reasonable alternative, particularly if the QT interval is prolonged.
      • Haemodynamically unstable:
        • Synchronised cardioversion
        • If this does not work, give 300mg amidoarone over 10-20min, and then attempt cardioversion again
        • Follow this with 900mg amiodarone over 24 hours.
    • Pulseless VT:
      • consider a praecordial thump
      • commence CPR
      • progress according to ILCOR ALS algorithm for shockable rhythms
  • Prevention of recurrence:
    • correct electrolyte disturbance
    • rule out cardiac ischaemia as cause
    • cease arrhythmogenic medications
    • address mechanical causes of VT: for example, PA catheter or very low CVC tips

References

Pellegrini, Cara N., and Melvin M. Scheinman. "Clinical management of ventricular tachycardia." Current problems in cardiology 35.9 (2010): 453-504.

Hazinski, Mary Fran, et al. "Part 1: Executive Summary 2010 International Consensus on Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Care Science With Treatment Recommendations." Circulation 122.16 suppl 2 (2010): S250-S275.

Question 12 - 2000, Paper 2

What is the role of cardioselective betablockers in the management of severe heart failure in
ICU?

College Answer

Cardioselective betablockers  (eg. atenolol, metoprolol  & practolol) have less effect on the beta·2 receptors (less vasoconstriction and less bronchoconstriction). No specific benefits of any subgroup of beta·blockers bas been confumed inthe management of severe heart failure.

The candidates should be able to discuss the complex  role of betablockers in heart failure. The role of betablockers in heart failure management is complex enough outside of the !CU. This has been clarified further in the last few years by publication of articles confirming the benefit of addition of betablockers to the conventional  heart failure regimen (ACE inhibitor + diuretics)  in the outpatient setting  (with   decreased   symptoms,   slowing   progression,   improving   LV   function   and   even improving survival). These benefits have been demonstrated  initially with carvedilol (non-selective betablocker) and more recently with metoprolol (cardioselective betablocker). Titration of the medication needs to be slow and judicious. It is unknown whether similar benefits can be obtained in the ICU setting, especially given the beneficial effects of short term administration of inotropic agents in dilated cardiomypoathy.

Betablockers may have some  benefit in the setting  of tachycardia (mcreased  resting  sympathetic tone),  but  many  patients   may  experience  worsening  of  symptoms.  Success  of   treatment  ofarrhythmias  with   betablockade depends  upon   the   magnitude  of   the   coincident  decrease ·in contractility (other  agents  may be preferred  eg. amiodarone). Prevention of sudden  death (malignant ventricular  arrhythmias) may be achieved.

Treatment   of   myocardial  ischaemia  with   betablockers  may   have   beneficial  effects  (oxygen
requirements, improved relaxation, decreased arrhythmias).
Betablockade may  be  beneficial  in the  setting  of  hypertrophic cardiomyopathy  (with  diastolic dysftmction), by decreasing myocardial oxygen  consumption, decreasing ischaemia and  improving
relaxation (lusitropy).

Discussion

How about another table?

 

Advantages of cardioselective betablockers

Disadvantages of cardioselective beta blockers

Mortality

Improve mortality in heart failure patients

Mortality improvement is no different to non-selective beta blockers

Contractility

Decreased contractility; 
Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption and enhanced subendocardial blood flow

Decreased responsiveness to preload

Heart rate

Decreased heart rate = decreased cardiac workload

Fixed stroke volume x decreased heart rate = poor cardiac output

Afterload

No influence on afterload; maintained good diastolic coronary filling

No decrease in afterload = no decrease in cardiac work against afterload

Myocardial oxygen consumption and cardiac workload

Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption  due to decreased heart rate and contractility

Decreased exercise tolerance

Side effects

Fewer beta-2 effects, thus no disadvantage in peripheral vascular disease and asthma

Nightmares, depression, lethargy

References

Al-Gobari, Muaamar, et al. "Beta-blockers for the prevention of sudden cardiac death in heart failure patients: a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials."BMC cardiovascular disorders 13.1 (2013): 52.

Tuunanen, Helena, and Juhani Knuuti. "Metabolic remodelling in human heart failure." Cardiovascular research 90.2 (2011): 251-257.

 

Question 3 - 2001, Paper 1

You are the team leader on the Cardiac Arrest team. What are your roles and what are the priorities of cardiac arrest management which you must help implement?

College Answer

a)         The roles of the team leader include:

1)   Ensure  that  the  priorities  of  management  are  carried  out  effectively  and  efficiently.

Coordinate defibrillation, intubation cannulation and drug administration

2)   Help  establish  a  diagnosis  by  ECG  and  physical  examination  and  by  obtaining  all available history from hospital notes and bystanders.

3)   Check resuscitation status ( ?DNR) and prognosis

4)   Order investigations

5)   Reassess response to treatment

6)   Communicate with admitting consultant

7)   Ensure family is notified

8)   Organise post resuscitation care

b)         Priorities of cardiac arrest management may be best listed by drawing a sensible algorithm

(preferably AHA 2000 0r ILCOR 1999). The list should include

-     immediate basic life support

-     rapid rhythm diagnosis

-     defibrillation for VF, intubation/adrenaline for asystole or PEA

-     continued drug and defibrillation management

-     effective post –resuscitation care

Discussion

According to the ARC statement, the team leader is responsible for: 

  • Directing and co-ordinating the resuscitation attempt 
  • The safety of the resuscitation team at the cardiopulmonary arrest
  • Ending the resuscitation attempt when indicated, often in consultation with other resuscitation team members and medical staff otherwise in charge of the patient
  • Documentation (including audit forms) and for communication with the relatives and other healthcare professionals involved in the patient's management 
  • Organising resuscitation team debriefing.

To this, one might add the following responsibilities:

  • Assessing the rhythm and evaluating the need for defibrillation
  • Ensuring the correct application of ALS and BLS
  • Establishing a diagnosis for the cause of the arrest
  • Ordering the appropriate investigations
  • Ensuring minimal interruptions to CPR
  • Allocating roles to the rescuers, and coordinating their efforts.
  • Recruiting external resources (eg. cardiologists, ICU staff, cardiothoracic surgeons) into the resuascitation effort
  • Communicating with family and the primary admitting consultant

References

ARC statement: Standards for Resuscitation: Clinical Practice and 
Education

Hunziker, Sabina, et al. "Teamwork and leadership in cardiopulmonary resuscitation." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 57.24 (2011): 2381-2388.

Question 13 - 2001, Paper 2

A 70 year old man with an implanted cardioverter/defibrillator is admitted to ICU following elective surgery.   How does the device affect your management?   What problems may be associated with the device?

College Answer

The cardioverter/defibrillator is usually inserted for ventricular arrhythmias resistant to antiarrhythmics or where antiarrhythmics are contraindicated. The patients usually have severe LV dysfunction and this has its own implications. Batteries usually last for 5-7 years and AV pacing facility is included.

In routine elective surgery its presence should not effect the patient’s management greatly but it may have been switched off because of the interference from diathermy. Cardiac surgery may have displaced a lead or fractured a lead, there is a risk of lead or box infection if bacteraemia occurs and threshold may be changed by medications. It is important to check with the responsible technician and cardiologist for programming and idiosyncrasies of the unit and maintain ECG monitoring with external defibrillator available.

Problems that arise from the device include –

•    Battery depletion

•    Lead fracture or displacement

•    Infection

•    Multiple shocks due to algorithm error, sensing failure, oversensing of physiological signals and lead failure

•    EMF interference from shaver, TV remote, MRI are also possible.

Discussion

Conditions which pose as indications for the insertion of an AICD are more threatening than the AICD itself, in my opinion.

Thus, the device itself affects ICU mangement only insofar as

  • it may malfunction, and either fail to pace or fail to shock
  • it may function too well (i.e. shock too often)
  • it may make imaging and procedures more difficult or impossible (eg. MRI).
  • it may act as a nidus for infection.

There is a beautiful and freely available article by Pinski et al which lists not only the common AICD-related problems, but also the solutions to them. In brief, the following problems may be encountered:

Total device failure: there is no pacing or AICD activity. The device appears dead for all intents and purposes. There are several possible causes for this:

  • Its battery may run out if it has not been checked recently.
  • The surgery may have damaged it, rendering it inoperable.
  • The anaesthetist had it turned off, in order to allow safe diathermy, and failed to turn it back on again.
  • The patient was externally defibrillated, and a 200J shock has completely fried the AICD circuitry.

Pacing failure: the device seems to be working (pacing spikes are seen on ECG) but there is no capture. This usually means something has happened to its interface with the myocardium.

  • The leads have become dislodged, eg. in moving the patient, or in the process of CVC insertion (classically, the PA catheter is to blame)
  • The whole device has been dislodged in some way, also pulling out the leads. Classically, this is associated with a demented patient who fiddles with their device.
  • The myocardium underlying the pacing lead has infarcted.
  • The lead has become infected

Failure to defibrillate VT or VF: the patient is clearly dying but the AICD for some reason refuses to rescue them. Why might that be? It is usually some sort of programing error. For instance:

  • Inappropriately high rate cutoff: the VT is not fast enough
  • Failure to satisfy multiple detection criteria (too many criteria)
  • Completed cycle, exhaustion of therapies (the AICD has run out of ideas)
  • Cross-inhibition by separate pacemaker

Overenthusiastic defibrillation: the device is shocking the patient relentlessly.

  • There is a genuine VT storm,
  • There is electrical interference, eg. from diathermy
  • The AICD is suffering a software error and is misinterpreting normal cardiac function or diaphragmatic myopotentials, delivering "spurious" shocks.

Inappropriately normal function: the device missed the family conference, and does not realise the patient is being palliated. In these situations the AICD should be disabled. Ethical issues arise if the patient has an underlying complete heart block or something similar (in which you might want to merely disable the defib function).

Logistic consequences of having an implantable device: i.e. problems with having some implanted object, with or without intrinsic electrical activity.

  • it may act as a nidus for infection
  • it interferes with line placement
  • it makes MRI impossible
  • it creates CT artifact, obscuring chest pathology

Obscure problems not unique to AICDs but common to PPMs as well:

  • Defib pad positioning for external defibrillation (if the AICD has failed) should be at least 8cm from the device, as per ARC guidelines. External defibrillation may cause device malfunction (Gould, 1981) - though, arguably, if you're using it on an AICD-equipped patient then the device has already malfunctioned.
  • Automated external defibrillators, when trying to interpret the rhythm of an arrested patient, may interpret the pacing spikes of a PPM or AICD as QRS complexes (Monsieurs, 1995). The consequences of this would be somebody potentially missing out on a lifesaving shock.
  • Demented patients can dislodge or malposition their own pacemaker leads ("Twiddler's syndrome"- Nicholson et al, 2003). 
  •  The device may explode in the crematorium, and though this is one of the  "problems may be associated with the device"  to mention this would probably generate no marks in this SAQ as it seems to refer to a living elective post-op patient. It is, however, a serious problem. "In the wall of the cremator was a finger-sized hole half an inch deep", report Gale et al (2002)

References

A bit of general information about the AICDs: DiMarco, John P. "Implantable cardioverter–defibrillators." New England Journal of Medicine 349.19 (2003): 1836-1847.

A more specific look at the problems they can cause: Pinski, Sergio L. "Emergencies related to implantable cardioverter-defibrillators."Critical care medicine 28.10 (2000): N174-N180.

GOULD, LAWRENCE, et al. "Pacemaker failure following external defibrillation." Pacing and Clinical Electrophysiology4.5 (1981): 575-577.

Gale, Christopher P., and Graham P. Mulley. "Pacemaker explosions in crematoria: problems and possible solutions." Journal of the Royal Society of Medicine 95.7 (2002): 353-355.

Monsieurs, Koenraad G., et al. "Semi-automatic external defibrillation and implanted cardiac pacemakers: understanding the interactions during resuscitation." Resuscitation 30.2 (1995): 127-131.

Nicholson, William J., Kathryn A. Tuohy, and Peter Tilkemeier. "Twiddler's syndrome." New England Journal of Medicine348.17 (2003): 1726-1727.

Question 2 - 2002, Paper 1

Critically evaluate the role of induced hypothermia in the management of critically ill patients in Intensive Care.

College Answer

Rapidly expanding area, answer needs covering of various areas.

Evidence to support use: comatose survivors after cardiac arrest had improved neurological survival (recent PRCT NEJM X 2); controversial/equivocal for severe head injuries (GCS 3-8), certainly demonstrated to decrease ICP; early evidence to support use in stroke and perhaps myocardial infarction; anecdotal evidence to support cooling to at least normothermia (eg. management of malignant hyperpyrexia); experimental for ARDS; use as adjuvant to minimise cerebral insult (prophylaxis) in the operating theatre during cardiac surgery (deep hypothermic circulatory arrest) and some neurosurgical procedures.

Technique: need to define temperature (eg. 32-33 degrees C), method to cool (blankets, surface cooling, intravenous device), and duration of therapy (eg. 12-24 hours or days).

Potential problems: immune suppression (increased infections), risks bleeding, vasoconstriction, shivering (necessitating neuromuscular paralysis and adverse effects of immobility).

Discussion

This question is identical to Question 20 from the second paper of 2006.

References

Question 14 - 2002, Paper 1

Outline the diagnostic features, complications and treatment of patients with Wolf- Parkinson-White syndrome.

College Answer

Diagnosis: history of arrhythmias (palpitations, dizzy, lightheaded), sudden death. ECG in sinus rhythm demonstrates short PR interval and delta waves. Electrophysiological evidence of AV conduction through AV bypass tract (bundle of Kent).

Complications:  recurrent  arrhythmias  (narrow  QRS  complex  orthodromic  AV  re-entrant tachycardia, wide QRS antidromic AV re-entrant tachycardia, atrial fibrillation (broad complex and may be very fast [> 200/min]), ventricular fibrillation), sudden death.

Treatment: (1) acute treatment of arrhythmias: a) Narrow SVT (as per SVT). b) Wide QRS SVT (procainamide; avoid adenosine, verapamil, digoxin and beta-blockers; treat as if VT). c) Atrial fibrilation:  (Appropriate  agents  include  procainamide,  amiodarone  and flecainide.  Avoid  agents which might slow AV conduction but not decrease conduction through bypass tract: i.e. adenosine, verapamil, digoxin and beta-blockers). (2) investigation via electrophysiologic evaluation: usually curative   ablation   of  accessory   pathway,   or  no  treatment   if  asymptomatic,   or  occasionally prophylactic medications.

Discussion

I would never be able to remember such things if they were not organised into headings and point form.

The below "model answer" is derived almost completely from UpToDate.

  • Diagnosis
    • ECG features of WPS are:
      • The PR interval is short (less than 0.12 seconds)
      • There is a delta wave (a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex)
      • Wide QRS (because the delta wave widens it)
      • ST Segment and T wave discordant changes: T waves point in the opposite direction to the QRS.
      • Pseudo-Q waves: negatively deflected delta waves in the inferior / anterior leads
      • prominent R wave in V1-3 (mimicking posterior infarction).
    • Ideally, this sort of ECG should come with a history of syncopal episodes.
    • Characteristic electrophysiology findings of an  accessory pathway (Bundle of Kent) are desirable but non essential.
  • Complications
    • SVT, which comes in two flavours. if the complexes are narrow, its orthodromic. If they are wide and with delta-waves, its antidromic. Does that really matter? Probably not.
    • AF  is disturbingly common in WPW- 10 to 30% of patients will have it at some point. Having AVRT predisposes one to AF in this situation because the reentry circuit via the accessory pathway can cause the atria to contract quite randomly (after all, the accessory pathway is not a serious part of the conducting system, and it doesn’t link into any sort of conduction pathways- its just going to excite any old patch of atrium). The ECG will throw you off. The conduction rate is roughly 1:1.5; the QRS rate is about 180 to 200. It is hard to tell that its irregularly irregular. The QRS complexes will be a mixture of pre-excited delta-waving ones, and normal-looking narrow ones. If the accessory pathway has a short refractory period, it will conduct more often and therefore there will be more broad complexes than narrow ones. The shorter the refractory period of the accessory pathway, the broader the QRS. And the broader the QRS, the greater the chance of this thing degenerating into ventricular fibrillation.
    • Atrial flutter can also conduct via the bundle of Kent. There will be 1:1 conduction. Ventricular rate will approach 300. Because this is an antidromic way of conducting impulses, the QRS complexes will be broad and there will be delta waves. Unlike AF, the rate runs with a metronome-like regularity. The patient will likely look dead.
    • Ventricular fibrillation is a common cause of sudden cardiac death among the WPWs. So, in AF with WPW conduction, the rate of ventricular contraction is increased, and the regularity is decreased. This fractionates the wavefront of ventricular depolarization. Soon enough, there are numerous wavefronts all moving around the ventricle. This is ventricular fibrillation. If you block the AV node, occasionally the accessory pathway will launch the ventricles into this. It’s a known, and extremely uncommon, complication of adenosine use in WPW.
    • Syncope and sudden cardiac death are the natural histories of these arrhythmias in WPW, because they are frequently too fast to be perfusing rhythms. The surviving sufferer is typically saved by their youth, as they may be better able to tolerate hummingbird-like heart rate for sustained periods.
  • Management of acute arrhythmias
    • vagal manoeuvres
    • AVOID ASV node blocking drugs such as adenosine, digoxin, beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
    • Procainamide, ibutilide or (maybe) amiodarone are the only antiarrhytmics useful in WPW
    • DC synchronised cardioversion
  • Long-term management
    • Catheter ablation of accessory pathway
    • Flecainide or propafenone
    • amiodarone also OK - but the side effect profile in long term use is not very nice for younger patients

WPW also crops up in Question 3.1 from the first paper of 2009.

References

Narula, Onkar S. "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome A Review." Circulation 47.4 (1973): 872-887.

and, somewhat more recently...

Scheinman, Melvin M. "History of Wolff‐Parkinson‐White Syndrome." Pacing and clinical electrophysiology 28.2 (2005): 152-156.

Keating, L., F. P. Morris, and W. J. Brady. "Electrocardiographic features of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." Emergency medicine journal 20.5 (2003): 491-493.

 

 

Question 1a - 2002, Paper 2

You are called to see a 49-year old female in the general surgical ward who has become profoundly hypotensive (75/40 on auscultation). She is now 5 days after palliative surgery for a perforated malignant gastric ulcer.  She is barely rousable and the pulse oximeter saturation is 85% on face mask oxygen (10L/min).

(a)         Please outline your initial management of this patient.

College Answer

Obvious initial priorities are airway, breathing and circulation, but aware of the fact that there may be some limitations placed on the resuscitative efforts. If no formal documentation is immediately available, it is appropriate to aggressively resuscitate (as usual, without delay) until appropriate information is obtained.

Endotracheal intubation is almost certainly indicated (immediately if unable to protect airway, or after a short period of cardiovascular resuscitation). Rhythm assessment is required to rapidly exclude reversible rhythm disorder. Fluids should be administered (type and amount over time should be discussed), and a vasopressor (bolus ± infusion) may be appropriate when hypovolaemia has been excluded.

Major differential to be considered includes hypovolaemia and sepsis (abdominal, respiratory) but other causes must be considered (including pulmonary embolus, myocardial infarction, anaphylaxis, adrenal insufficiency etc.).

Early administration of broad spectrum antibiotics &/or corticosteroids should be considered.

Discussion

...Should this patient even come to ICU?

Oh well, you can work that out after you have violently resuscitated her, amiright?

Initial assessment, with attention to ABCs with simultaneous brief history and rapid focused examination

  • 1) Ensure personal safety

    2) Perform a basic peri-arrest primary survey

  • Immediate assessment to diagnose cardiac arrest
    • Are they awake?
    • If they appear unconscious, shake them and ask "Are you alright?"
    • If they are unresponsive, look listen and feel for respiratory effort.
    • If the patient is unconscious, unresponsive, and is not breathing, call for help and start CPR.
      Otherwise, move on with the structured approach to prevent cardiac arrest
  • Airway:
    • Assess patency: best done by interrogating the patient. If he provides coherent answers to your questions, his ABCs are unlikely to be desperately compromised. If he does not, one should secure his airway - initially usig unsophisticated techniques (jaw thrush, chin lift), progressing through airway adjuncts to intubation as needed.
    • Look for presence of vomit or foreign body
    • Prepare to progress to intubation
  • Breathing
    • Observe respiratory rate
    • maintain oxygenationintially with high flow oxygen via tight-fitting reservoir mask. A high flow nonrebreather mask not only delivers around 75% FiO2, it also allows one to assess respiratory function by observing the expiratory fogging of the clear plastic, and one can hook up an end-tidal capnometer to it to detect expired CO2.
    • progress to bag-mask ventilation if respiratory arrest occurs
    • Auscultate the chest, percuss it, palpate for surgical emphysema
    • Investigate with ABG and urgent CXR
    • Specific differentials to consider before moving on with the survey:
      • Massive PE (distended neck veins, cyanosis, tachycardia and hypotension)
      • Acute severe asthma (silent hyperexpanded chest, the hint of wheeze)
      • Tension pneumothorax (unequal air entry, deviated trachea, hyper-resonant chest)
      • Massive haemothorax or effusion (unequal air entry, deviated trachea, dull percussion note over the hemithorax)
      • Pulmonary oedema (pink frothy sputum, coarse gurling creps)
  • Circulation
    • Ensure large-bore IV access
    • Measure the blood pressure non-invasively and attach ECG leads for monitoring
    • administer IV fluids as bolus
    • administer readily available vasopressors, eg. metaraminol in order to maintain cerebral perfusion
    • assess for sources of bleeding
    • ABG or FBC to assess Hb, and need for transfusion
    • rapid bedside TTE to assess cardiac chamber volume and contractility
    • Specific differentials to consider before moving on with the survey:
      • Extremes of hypovolemia (collapsed veins, empty chambers, slow capillary refill, dry mucosae, cool extremities, weak rapid pulse)
      • Haemorrhagic shock ( exactly as above but also deathly pallor)
      • Cardiac tamponade (distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds, electrical alternans on ECG)
      • Peri-arrest arrhythmia (eg. VT or SVT)
      • Severe sepsis (mottled skin, fever, hyperdynamic circulation with hypotension)
    • A fluid bolus would be an appropriate reaction in any case. A hand-operated pump giving set with a litre of crystalloid should be set up. Ideally, one should prepare for invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring.
  • Disability/neurology
    • Assess for signs of intracranial catastrophe by performing a brief neurological examination, including pupils and muscle tone/reflexes
    • Test BSL: ensure normoglycaemia
    • Specific differentials to consider before moving on with the survey:
      • Intracranial catastrophe (pupils, focal signs)
      • Seizure (increased tone, exaggerated reflexes, gaze deviation, clonus)
      • Extreme hypoglycaemia
      • Hyperglycaemic coma
      • Extremes of electrolyte derangement (eg. a sodium of 90 or 190)
      • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Exposure/examination
    • Assess for sources of bleeding
    • Examine for features of anaphylaxis
    • Check temperature; ensure normothermia

References

Question 1b - 2002, Paper 2

You are called to see a 49-year old female in the general surgical ward who has become profoundly hypotensive (75/40 on auscultation). She is now 5 days after palliative surgery for a perforated malignant gastric ulcer.  She is barely rousable and the pulse oximeter saturation is 85% on face mask oxygen (10L/min).

(b)        Please discuss the timing and nature of any investigations that you would perform.

College Answer

Timing and the information expected is required. Immediate investigations should include ECG monitoring (for rhythm and ST segment assessment), arterial blood gases (oxygenation, carbon dioxide and acid base status), full blood examination (Hb, WCC) and electrolytes (including renal function and lactate). Blood cultures should be taken as soon as possible. Less urgent (minutes) investigations include chest and abdominal radiographs, ECG, and consideration of further abdominal investigations (eg. CT scan).

More specific investigations may be indicated according to the clinical suspicion. Consider exclusion of pulmonary embolus (CT angiogram, transoesophageal echo), severe myocardial dysfunction (PA catheter, echocardiography), baseline cortisol (before administer corticosteroids).

Discussion

Immediate investigations

  • ABG
  • CXR
  • FBC, EUC, CMP, LFT, group and screen, blood cultures (as well as any other relevant body fluid)
  • ECG

Investigations in the short-medium term

  • CTPA and CT abdomen (to look for major postoperative bleeding, as well as rule out PE)
  • Formal TTE to assess cardiac function in detail
  • random cortisol level

References

Question 6 - 2002, Paper 2

Outline the techniques  you would use to determine the prognosis in a comatose survivor of a cardiac arrest.

College Answer

The major determinants of survival after a cardiac arrest are cardiac (arrhythymias and myocardial function) and neurological. Accuracy of assessment of prognosis of both factors increases with time. No techniques have 100% positive predictive value, or more importantly 100% negative predictive value.

•    Cardiovascular techniques of most value are the response to therapy (including thrombolysis or angioplasty) and echocardiography.
•    Neurological survival is best predicted by neurologic examination (again increasing certainty with time). Early poor prognostic signs (eg at 24 hours post-arrest) are fixed,unreactive pupils and extensor or absent motor response to painful stimuli (if not paralysed or deeply sedated). Brain death criteria are rarely met. Further refinement of prognosis may be achieved with investigations such as Somato-Sensory Evoked Potentials or EEG. CT is notoriously unreliable. MRI will detect more abnormalities, as it is a more sensitive test (though studies relating appearance to outcome are lacking).

Discussion

This question closely resembles Question 4 from the second paper of 2013: "Describe the clinical signs and investigations available to predict poor neurological outcome in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest. Include in your answer the factors that may confound the interpretation of these signs and investigations."

References

Question 1b - 2003, Paper 1

A 50-year-old man with motor neurone disease presents to hospital  with respiratory distress following two (2) days of fever and malaise.  He is alert and anxious, and an arterial blood gas performed on oxygen (8L/min semi-rigid mask) revealed PaO2 45 mmHg, PaCO2  65 mmHg, pH 7.36 and HCO3 36 mmol/L.   He has used a motorised wheelchair for three (3) years but continues  to  work as  an  accountant.    His  attentive   wife states  that  they  have  discussed mechanical   ventilation   and   are  keen   for  him   to  receive   full  Intensive   Care  support.

•    His respiratory function  deteriorates and  the  decision  is made  to ventilate  him.   Your registrar induces  anaesthesia  with  thiopentone,  fentanyl,  and  suxamethonium.    He  is intubated with  difficulty  using  a bougie  and  during this  process  he becomes  pulseless. Discuss your management.

College Answer

Immediate management should be according to an appropriate ACLS protocol (including confirmation of  lack  of  central  pulse,  management  according  to  rhythm,  vasoconstrictor and external cardiac compression as appropriate, confirm placement of ETT [check position and ETCO2]; search for and correct reversible factors especially vasodilatation, profound hypoxaemia, excessive ventilation and hyperkalaemia [suxamethonium plus chronic muscle wasting).  Other management includes ongoing supportive care of ICU patient (eg. further communication and discussion with family, pressure care, DVT and stress ulcer prophylaxis, cultures and antibiotics if appropriate, etc.)

Discussion

This question consolidates within itself the answers to Question 6 from the first paper of 2006,Question 8 from the second paper of 2004 and Question 14 from the second paper of 2003, which ask about the management of PEA and VF.

Also, this scenario closely resembles Question 18.1 from the first paper of 2010, which asks the candidate for causes of cardiac arrest in a recently intubated tetraplegic patient.

The question states that the patient becomes pulseless, meaning that cardiac output is lost, but it mentions nothing about the underlying rhythm. Thus, the answer should focus on the systematic application of BLS and ALS, as well as the generation of differential diagnoses for the causes of such an arrest.

Thus:

Firstly, one assumes that cardiac arrest has been confirmed as "the cessation of cardiac mechanical activity as confirmed by the absence of signs of circulation".

Thus, first one should commence CPR, with the registrar asynchonously ventilating the patient via the newly inserted ETT.

Then, one should get more help by pressing the alarm button.

When help arrives, one should immediately call for defibrillator pads to be applied. As soon as possible, the underlying rhythm should be assessed, with the defibrillator charging while CPR is in progress.

While waiting for this rhythm check, one should systematically evaluate the situation:

A) - endotracheal position of the ETT should be confirmed by end-tidal capnography

B) - bag ventilation should continue at a CPR-asynchronous rate of 8-10 breaths per minute with 100% FiO2, using conservative tidal volumes.

C) - CPR should continue at a rate of 100 compressions per minute, ideally with a rotating queu of staff ready to take over from fatigued rescuers. IV access should be expanded upon (I am assuming a cannula at least was available, if thio/fentanyl/sux were used to induce the patient). Through this line, a fluid bolus should be administered via a hand-pumped giving set.The patient must have been monitored while intubation was taking place, and the monitor should offer a log of periarrest rhythm changes one could peruse to determine the pre-arrest rhythm.

D) A BSL should be collected to rule out hypoglycaemia.

E) An ABG should be collected, to rule out hyperkalemia due to suxamethonium, or hypokalemia due to other causes.

The drug chart and obs chart should be quickly reviewed, and a quick examination should be performed, to excluded hypothermia and anaphylaxis as causes of the arrest.

Once the underlying rhythm is established, one can determine whether to defibrillate (for a shockable rhythm) or to give adrenaline (for a non-shockable rhythm, which in this scenario is more likely).

The 4 Hs and 4 Ts should be considered:

  • Hypoxia (thus, oesophageal intubation or delayed oxygenation)
  • Hypovolemia (thus, cardiovascular collapse due to vasodilation by an induction agent like propofol, or due to the autonomic dysfunction of spinal cord injury)
  • Hyper/hypokalemia (thus, the effects of suxamethonium)
  • Hyper/hypothermia (probably irrelevant in this case)
  • Tension pneumothorax (due to overvigorous bag-mask ventilation, or due to tracheobronchial disruption by violent use of the bougie)
  • Tamponade (unlikely in this setting)
  • Toxins (eg. anaphylactic reaction to induction agents)
  • Thrombus (eg. PE or MI)

References

Question 3 - 2003, Paper 1

Compare and contrast the role of Troponin and CKMB in the management of myocardial ischaemia in the critically ill.

College Answer

CKMB is creatine kinase dimer of M and B chains and exists as 4.   It is found in a high ratio predominantly  in  myocardial  cytosol,  but  is  also  present  in  skeletal  muscle  (especially  in myopathies or after injury).  Levels of CK MB rise within 4 to 12 hours of myocardial infarction (high sensitivity and specificity), peak at 18 to 24 hours and return to baseline by 36 to 40 hours. Diagnosis of MI may be enhanced by measuring MB isoforms (higher sensitivity) or use of MBfraction of total CK (problem if significant skeletal muscle damage [eg. surgery, cardioversion], hypothyroidism or renal failure [CKMB elevated in approximately 30 to 70 percent of dialysis patients]).   Not increased in myocarditis.   CKMB level is indicative of infarct size, and is independent prognostic marker.  Rapid return of level to normal allows potential for diagnosis of reinfarction.

Cardiac troponins are cardiac regulatory proteins and exist as “T” and “I” forms.  Early release is from cytosol, and subsequent release from damaged structural components.   Many results from early studies hindered by variability in assays.  More recent (second generation) assays are highly specific for cardiac troponins (both forms).  Levels rise within 4 to 12 hours after myocardial infarction (high specificity but less sensitivity if rely on 6 hour specimen), peak at 18 to 24 hours, but levels stay elevated for up to 10 days (allows late diagnosis of MI, but not reinfarction). cTpI preferred  in  renal  failure  (false  positive  elevations  of  cTnT:  in  one  study  82  percent  of asymptomatic dialysis patients had elevated cTnT levels when the cutoff value was 0.01 µ g/L!). Elevations may occur in pulmonary embolism or myocarditis, but potentially better than CKMB for situations where skeletal muscle damage is present (eg. DCR, trauma, post-op).  Level of troponin also associated with prognosis (? clinical relevance of subtle elevations).

Elevation of cardiac enzymes (if not a false positive) without ECG changes is now considered to represent a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction.

Discussion

This question had found a more detailed incarnation in a later paper - 2010 paper 2, question 27.

An answer to this question lends well to a table format.

Biomarker

Troponin

CKMB

Origin

Highly specific  injured myocardium

Myocardium as well as skeletal muscle;
MB isoform is more specific

Pharmacokinetics

Rise within 4-6hrs;
Peak within 18-24 hrs
Slow to clear (7-14 days)

Rise within 4-12 hrs;
Peak within 18-24 hrs
Rapidly cleared (2-3 days)

Use in critical care

More sensitive than CK for cardiac ischaemia

Rapid rise allows earlier identification of ischaemia

Correlate well with risk stratification

Strongly associated with  30-day mortality

Less sensitive for cardiac ischaemia than TnT

Rapid clearance allows the detection of reinfarction

Causes of elevation unrelated to coronary ischaemia

Pulmonary embolism
Tachyarrhythmia
Post-defibrillation
Post-CPR
Post-cardiotomy
Cardiac trauma
Myocarditis

Pulmonary embolism
Tachyarrhythmia
Post-defibrillation
Post-CPR
Post-cardiotomy
Cardiac trauma

Non-cardiac causes of elevation

Sepsis
Renal failure

Sepsis 
Renal failure
Rhabdomyolysis
Trauma
Major surgery
Burns (esp electrical)

 

References

McLean, Anthony S., and Stephen J. Huang. "Cardiac biomarkers in the intensive care unit." Ann Intensive Care 2.8 (2012): 1-11.

Question 12 - 2003, Paper 2

Outline the causes, and principles of management of ventricular fibrillation

College Answer

Ventricular fibrillation requires an initiating stimulus in a susceptible myocardium. VF can be induced in a previously normal myocardium as a result of electrical stimulation (electrocution, lightning) or by trauma (commotio cordis).  The myocardium can be made more susceptible by the presence of hypoxaemia (e.g. respiratory arrest), electrolyte disturbances (low K and Mg), altered autonomic and vagal inputs, and mechanical stimuli (e.g. wire or catheter in RV).  The myocardium may be abnormally susceptible due to congenital (e.g. conduction abnormalities) or acquired disorders (including ischaemia, hypertrophy, myocarditis, pro-arrhythmic drugs, etc).

Principle of management include early defibrillation, but in concert with correction of any correctible cause (e.g. wire, electrolytes, hypoxaemia etc), support of the cardio-respiratory state with adequate basic life support, and restoration of an appropriate metabolic milieu to support a normal rhythm.  This latter approach may require performance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and administration of specific anti-arrhythmic drugs.   Defibrillation is performed with either monophasic (200/200/360J) or biphasic (150/150/150J) defibrillator waveforms in a series of up to three sequential shocks. Subsequent monophasic shocks should be administered at maximal dose.

Discussion

This question is identical to Question 6 from the first paper of 2006.

References

Question 2a - 2004, Paper 1

A 76-year-old woman with severe ischaemic heart disease being treated with aspirin, clopidogrel and metoprolol presents with severe abdominal and back pain, 6 hours after  being discharged home from a routine cardiac angiogram via the femoral route.

a)        How would you investigate the cause?

College Answer

a)        How would you investigate the cause?

The differential could be large and could include pancreatitis, retroperitoneal haematoma, aortic dissection, cholecystitis, infarcted gut, G-I perforation, diverticular disease, pericarditis, myocardial infarction/ischaemia, pneumothorax. Investigation includes, a proper history (character, type, severity, position of pain, associated features etc), full clinical examination (signs of all the above possibilities) and relevant investigations .   Amylase, Hb (has it fallen?), wbc, U&Es, LFTs, ChestXR, ECG and troponin, U/S abdomen, echocardiogram, CT scan abdomen depending on the most likely cause. A good answer would also include what would be expected from the investigations ordered.

A large retroperitoneal  haematoma is diagnosed. After resuscitation, the bleeding is stopped by angiographic embolisation of a branch of the left internal iliac artery.
She  is  still  in  the  intensive care  unit  2  days  later  when  she  becomes suddenly dyspnoeic, hypoxaemic and hypotensive with a BP of 80 systolic.

Discussion

This woman sounds like a retroperitoneal haematoma from the very beginning, but one must go though the motions

a)        How would you investigate the cause?

A thorough history and detailed physical examination would be a good start.

Differentials:

  • Aortic dissection
  • Retroperitoneal hematoma
  • Ischaemic gut
  • perforated viscus
  • cholecystitis
  • pancreatitis
  • splenic infarct

One would assess the abdomen particularly, looking for masses.

One would auscultate the abdomen, listening for a bruit of aortic dissection

One would also look for features of shock, metabolic acidosis, and peritonism, suggestive of ischaemic gut (due to emboli dislodged from the aorta)

A CXR, ABG, ECG, a full panel of bloods including FBC, LFT, amylase/lipase and inflammatory makers.

An abdominal ultrasound looking for vascular tree damage, and a CT of the abdomen with IV contrast to image the intraabdominal organs and their supplying vessels.

References

Question 2 - 2004, Paper 2

Outline your approach to the management of rapid atrial fibrillation in the critically ill patient.

College Answer

Management of atrial fibrillation requires consideration of urgency of treatment, reversal of potentially reversible causes, rate control, rhythm control and risks of thromboembolism. In the acute setting either rate control or reversion to sinus rhythm may provide haemodynamic benefits. Reversion to sinus rhythm is reasonable if atrial thrombi not expected (AF or more than 48 hrs duration or unknown duration). The use of trans-oesophageal echocardiography in excluding atrial thrombi is still uncertain (as not all thrombi identified). If reversion would add risks of thromboembolism then rate control and anticoagulation is preferred. In the presence of haemodynamic instability synchronised cardioversion (before or after administration of drugs/electrolytes) should be considered. If reversion is desired, correction of electrolytes (K and Mg) and specific drugs may be successful (eg. one of amiodarone [especially if impaired LV function], flecainide, procainamide, ibutilide or propafenone). If rate control only is desired then calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers or digoxin can be considered. Many critically ill patients are resistant to rate control with digoxin. Beta- blockers, calcium channel blockers and digoxin can be harmful if the rapid AF is due to Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
Specific reversible causes may include drugs (eg. beta-agonists), mechanical stimuli (eg. guidewire, or catheters) and systemic disorders (eg. thyrotoxicosis, sepsis). Published guidelines (ILCOR, AHA) are available.

Discussion

The question calls for a systematic approach.

Such an approach can be reviewed in the ILCOR guidelines, from which the local ARC guidelines are derived.

A fresh recently published article presents a lovely table of causes of AF in the ICU (Table 1) as well as a lucid and detailed discussion of the therapeutic options. My answer was largely modelled on these suggestions.

  • Assess  the patient by history physical examination; establish the duration of AF and the likely cause for its onset (if possible)
  • Stratify into hemodynamically stable or compromised category on the basis of changes in vital signs and tissue perfusion before and after the episode

Hemodynamically stable patient:

  • Rate control with beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin or amiodarone
  • Reverse any potentially reversible factors
  • Consider DC or chemical cardoversion if AF is of recent onset
  • Commence anticoagulation if AF is of uncertain onset, or longer than 48 hrs duration. The options are:
    • Warfarin: relative risk reduction for stroke 62%; absolute risk reduction 2.8% per year
    • Aspirin: relative risk reduction for stroke 22%; absolute risk reduction 1.5% per year
    • Warfarin plus aspirin: no additional benefit over warfarin alone
    • Dabigatran: 35% reduction in stroke compared to warfarin
  • Consider TOE to rule out intracardiac thrombi
  • Reverse any potentially reversible factors

Hemodynamically compromised patient

  • Basic  life support as needed
  • Synchronised DC cardioversion
  • Hemodynamic and respiratory support as needed, including emchanical ventilation and inotropes/vasopressors
  • Reverse any potentially reversible factors

Investigation of causes, reversal of reversible factors, and preventative strategies

  • Investigate causes and institiute preventive corrections
    • Screen for sepsis
    • Correct electrolyte abnormalities
    • Correct hypothermia
    • Correct mechanical stimulus to the atria, eg. central lines
    • Corect atrial distension, eg. fluid overload
    • Address issues of pain and anxiety
    • Investigate for cardiac ischaemia
    • Investigate for endocrine abnormalities, eg. thyroid function and phaemochromocytoma

References

Morrison, Laurie J., et al. "Part 8: advanced life support 2010 international consensus on cardiopulmonary resuscitation and emergency cardiovascular care science with treatment recommendations." Circulation 122.16 suppl 2 (2010): S345-S421.

Arrigo, Mattia, Dominique Bettex, and Alain Rudiger. "Management of Atrial Fibrillation in Critically Ill Patients." Critical Care Research and Practice 2014 (2014).

 

Question 6 - 2004, Paper 2

Outline the causes, and principles of management of Electro-Mechanical  Dissociation (Pulseless Electrical Activity).

College Answer

Electro-mechanical dissociation refers to a clinical state in which the patient has an ECG compatible with a normal output but has no palpable pulse. Various ways have been proposed to assist practitioners to remember the sort of conditions that could be responsible for EMD (eg. 10 step zigzag sequence [Kloeck 1995], 4Hs and 4Ts [ILCOR 2000]). Specific conditions that should be considered (history, examination, and investigation, with specific management) include:
·           Hypoxia (ensure 100% oxygen),
·           Hypovolaemia (administer fluids, stop haemorrage, clamp bleeding vessels),
·           Hypo/hyperthermia (ensure adequately warmed if severely hypothermic, or cooled
[eg. with dantrolene for malignant hyperpyrexia])
·           Hypo/hyper-kalemia and other metabolic disorders (exclude abnormalities in K , Mg , Ca ; severe acidosis: consider HCO3)
·           Tamponade (drain pericardial collection, release ventilation induced intra-thoracic pressure)
·           Tension Pneumothorax (needle thoracostomy then chest tube),
·           Toxins/Poisons/Drugs (consider all recently administered drugs for allergy and/or anaphylaxis [adrenaline, fluids, oxygen, remove hapten], excessive vasodilatation or cardiac depression [consider antidotes: isoprenaline {betablockers}, Ca {Ca channel blockers}, HCO3 for Na channel blockers {especially tricyclic anti-depressants}) ·           Thrombosis Pulmonary/Coronary (consider thrombolytics, urgent surgery)

Discussion

PEA is a situation where one is presented with organised electrical activity (i.e. a potetially perfusing rhythm) in the absence of cardiac output. The old term (electro-mechanical dissociation) is no longer in use.

A good systematic framework for this is the "Four Hs and four Ts" mnemonic:

  • Hypoxia
  • Hypovolemia (or distributive shock)
  • Hyper/hypokalemia
  • Hyper/hypothermia
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Tamponade
  • Toxins
  • Thrombus

Thus, one may start by saying that the management of such a situation, whatever the cause, should begin with cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Specific management then depends on the cause.

Thus:

  • Hypoxia in an arrest is usually well-managed with adequate bag-mask ventilation and high concentration of supplied oxygen
  • Hypovolemia and distributive shock can be ameliorated by the administration of fluids
  • Potassium disturbances will be discovered whent he first ABG returns from the blood gas machine, and these can be managed routinely
  • Tension pneumothorax can be suspected from history, and confirmed by examination. Management consists of decompression.
  • Cardiac tamponade is also suggested by history and examination findings. Management consist of emergency pericardicentesis
  • Toxins are suggested by history and characteristic examination findings, eg. pinpoint pupils, the rashj of anaphylaxis, etc. Management consists of administering an antidote, if it is available.
  • Thrombosis - in the context of arrest-inducing massive PE - can be suspected from history; confirmation relies on the presence of an ultrasound machine and a skilled operator. Management consists of intra-arrest thrombolysis. For coronary thrombosis, this may not be a viable option.

Everyone has heard of the 4Hs and 4 Ts, but what the hell is this 10-step zigzag sequence? Apparently, it was described by Walter J.G. Kloeck in 1995. The article is not available to me, and the abstract is uninformative, but this entry in JournalGems confirms that this 10-step mnemonic is in fact the same 4 Hs and 4 Ts with an extra H (hypoglycaemia) and an extra T (separating PE and MI). One could also argue that we could extend the mnemonic further, and end up with 20 Hs and 20Ts, but one ought to remember that these mnemonics are used by critical care staff who have brief two minute breaks between rhythm checks to diagnose the cause of the arrest while running the show. Any complex memory device used to recall causes of arrest is only adding to their already massive cognitive load.

References

The index of ARC guidelines is available from the ARC website.

 

Kloeck, Walter GJ. "A practical approach to the aetiology of pulseless electrical activity. A simple 10-step training mnemonic." Resuscitation 30.2 (1995): 157-159.

 

Question 6 - 2005, Paper 1

Critically evaluate the role of cardioversion in Intensive Care practice.

College Answer

Cardioversion is the delivery of energy that is synchronised with the QRS complex in an attempt to revert an abnormal rhythm.  Defibrillation is the non-synchronised (ie. random) delivery of energy and is used in unstable rhythms (eg. pulseless VT or VF).

The potential benefits (correction of the underlying rhythm) need to be balanced against the potential risks, especially in the critically ill, and should not be undertaken lightly.

Success rates vary with the characteristics of the underlying rhythm (highest in SVT and atrial flutter, and lower in AF [inversely related to left atrial size, duration of AF, and precipitating cause still being present {eg. hyperadrenegic state secondary to sepsis}]), and the energy delivered (often deliver 150 to 200J biphasic, lower with atrial flutter). Potential risks include:

•    Failure    of    cardioversion    (insufficient    energy    delivered,    technical     factors, misdiagnosis of rhythm [eg. sinus tachycardia!])

•    Requirement for some degree of sedation and analgesia; potential for awareness

•    Hypotension

•    Myocardial damage (ST changes and myocardial dysfunction usually short term; minimal elevation in troponins)

•    Arrhythmias (eg. SVT, non-sustained VT, rarely more malignant [more likely if digoxin toxic and hypokalaemic])

•    Conduction  abnormalities  (bradycardia,  and  heart  block  common;  occasionally needing temporary pacing)

•    Embolisation (especially if AF present > 48 hrs and not anticoagulated; strategy may include TOE)

•    Damage to permanent pacemaker (if not careful with electrode placement)

•    Others include pulmonary oedema, skin burns and risk of sparking/fire.

Discussion

This is a weird question. Sometimes, one cannot help but cardiovert somebody. For instance, the most recent guidelines from the ARC recommend that synchronised cardioversion be first-line therapy for any hemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmia. One may as well ask the candidates to critically evaluate micturition; to be sure alternatives exist but it is really the well-established standard.

Anyway, this question could be interpreted slightly differently.

Taking into account the inevitability of cardioversion in certain situations, one could critically evaluate the risks and benefits of it with a focus on the semi-elective patient, in whom pharmacological cardioversion is an option.

Rationale for the use of direct current to convert cardiac rhythm

Cardioversion is the use of a short ( 200msec) discharge of direct current which is synchronised with the QRS complexes, so as to convert an abnormal rhythm to sinus rhythm. It has not always been direct current (Claude Beck's 1947 model defibrillator used AC straight from the wall outlet, and generally only Soviet defibrillators were biphasic DC until the 1960s). Ultimately, direct current was found to be safer: a larger amount of energy could be delivered in a short period of time. The mechanism remains incompletely understood. Various groups have suggested various explanations. Direct current travels around the cells as well as through them;  the effect is to change the transmembrane electrical potentials. One might expect all the cells to depolarise because all of the voltage-gated ion channels suddenly open, but the effect does not seem uniform: some cells depolarise and others hyperpolarise. In any case, this disrupts the normal propagation of action potentials. In this manner, DC current depolarises a sufficiently large amount of cardiac tissue, putting it into a refractory period and preventing the propagation of a reentrant current (which then dies away).

Advantages of DC cardioversion over chemical cardioversion

  • Electrical cardioversion is immediately effective (when it is effective)
  • It may be life-saving in a haemodynamically unstable arrhythmia
  • Automated devices ensure synchronisation so that  R-on-T phenomena should not occur
  • There are relatively few long-term side effects associated with it (i.e. unlike long-term amiodarone it won't give you pulmonary fibrosis) 

Disadvantages of electrical cardioversion in comparison to antiarrhythmic drugs

  • It is not a long-term strategy: if the underlying pathology has not been fixed, reversion to sinus rhythm will not be sustained.
  • There is the risk of arterial thromboembolism, although this is probably much the same risk as with pharmacological cardioversion, or with spontaneous reversion to sinus rhythm for that matter
  • It requires a sedated patient.
  • It will result in a raised troponin, which may obscure the presence of genuine myocardial infarction.
  • It requires the accurate diagnosis of rhythm

Accepted applications of electrical cardioversion

  • Atrial flutter (good chance of success)
  • Supraventricular tachycardia (good chance of success)
  • VT
  • Atrial fibrillation (poor chance of success, especially if the AF has been going on for a very long time).

Potential complications of electrical cardioversion

  • Ventricular fibrillation may develop due to lack of synchronization.
  • Sudden restoration of sinus rhythm can dislodge intracardiac thrombi.
  • Transient left bundle branch block may develop. In fact any sort of conduction block may develop, including complete heart block.
  • Transient left ventricular systolic dysfunction may develop. In fact you could cause myocardial damage.
  • There may be skin burns due to incorrect use of the equipment.
  • If the patient has a pacemaker, you may damage it with the direct current. 
  • If the patient has digoxin toxicity, one may induce VF in such a patient.

References

Mayr, Andreas, et al. "Effectiveness of direct-current cardioversion for treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias, in particular atrial fibrillation, in surgical intensive care patients*." Critical care medicine 31.2 (2003): 401-405.

Trappe, Hans-Joachim, Bodo Brandts, and Peter Weismueller. "Arrhythmias in the intensive care patient." Current opinion in critical care 9.5 (2003): 345-355.

Question 20 - 2005, Paper 1

Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of Transoesophageal Echocardiography,   Angiography,  and  CT  Angiography  for  the  diagnosis  of  aortic injuries.

College Answer

The major aortic injury is traumatic aortic rupture. This usually occurs at the aortic isthmus, between the left subclavian and the first intercostals arteries, where a few cm only of subadventitial rupture may be seen, with an associated intraluminal flap.   Other potential injuries include intimal tears, mural thrombi and aortic dissection.

All of the techniques have potential practical limitations, as they all require expert practitioners to perform, and a degree of sedation/anaesthesia. No comparative studies have evaluated management based on a particular technique. Choice will usually depend on local expertise!

The definitive test (gold standard) is still direct angiography (aortography). It requires catheter placement into the proximal aorta, and has problems associated with arterial access (eg. femoral) and arterial dye injection, but it provides better anatomical details for some areas (eg. aortic arch, brachiocephalic arteries and distal arteries).

CT angiography (usually high resolution, contrast enhanced spiral CT) has the advantages of providing other anatomical information, is more widely available, can be performed at short notice with rapid results (in trauma centres) and can be performed as part of workup for other injuries (eg. patient has other indications for chest CT).  It still requires IV contrast injection, transport to CT scan, immobilisation and expert interpretation.

Trans-Oesophageal Echocardiography is becoming more accessible at short notice as more practitioners are trained in its use.   Limitations include availability of expert practitioner (and equipment), requirement for sedation (+/- airway protection) and need for oesophageal placement of scope (in patient with unknown cervical spine status).   Artefacts may limit diagnostic accuracy (including atherosclerotic change).  Advantages include portability of procedure, rapid results with good sensitivity and specificity (comparable to spiral CT), and the ability to assess other cardiac and aortic structures (eg. in the presence of aortic dissection).

Discussion

This question closely resembles Question 13 from the second paper of 2010.

Though the question does not specify dissection, the same principles apply.

Assuming it is blunt aortic injury we are talking about, nice guidelines are available from a 2000 article in Trauma. To briefly visit this paper, aortography by direct angiography is still the gold standard, and TOE is still only supported by level 3 evidence.

References

Nagy, Kimberly, et al. "Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of blunt aortic injury: an EAST Practice Management Guidelines Work Group." Journal of Trauma-Injury, Infection, and Critical Care 48.6 (2000): 1128-1143.

 

The canonical source for this information would have to be the most recent iteration of the ACCF/AHA Guidelines for Diagnosis and Management of Patients With Thoracic Aortic Disease.

 

Question 30 - 2005, Paper 1

This is the ECG of a 73 year old man who was noticed to have a slow pulse rate. He has a past  history  of  ischemic  heart  disease  and  is  being  treated  with  digoxin  and  beta- adrenergic blockers.

What is the rhythm?  What is the conduction abnormality?  Please justify your responses.

College Answer

The rhythm is Atrial Flutter with a high degree (but apparently consistent) AV block, and a ventricular rate of approximately 40/minute. There is an obvious saw-tooth pattern of atrial depolarisations (at  a  rate  of  approximately 250/min)  seen  in  many  leads.  Association between the flutter and the ventricular depolarisations is based on the finding of a constant PR interval (with a fixed relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex), which excludes AF, and complete heart block.

The conduction abnormality is a tri-fascicular block as it includes:

•    Second degree (Mobitz II) AV block (as evidenced by constant relationship between P waves and the QRS)

•    Right bundle branch block (QRS > 0.12, RSR in V1, S in lead 1)

•    Left anterior hemiblock implied by left axis deviation (slightly positive in 1, negative with small R waves in II and III)

Discussion

The accuracy and completeness of the college answer makes it difficult to discuss this question.

Certainly, I cannot improve on their response.

One can read further about these ECG abnormalities within the body of this site:

Or one could review the topic properly at LITFL.

References

Question 15 - 2005, Paper 2

A blood gas result and an Electrocardiogram are obtained  from a 26 year old man who presents with recurrent respiratory failure.

Barometric pressure = 760 mmHg

FiO2

1.0

pH

7.46

7.35-7.45

pCO2

54

35-45 mmHg

pO2

50

mmHg

HCO3

37

20-30 mmol/L

Please explain these results.  Outline how you would clarify the cardiac status  in this patient. Justify your choices.

College Answer

This man is profoundly hypoxic with a PaO2 of only 50 mmHg on 100% oxygen (AaDO2=596 mmHg; PaO2/FiO2 ratio 50).

He is alkalemic, with an elevated bicarbonate (metabolic alkalosis) and an elevated PaCO2 (higher than predicted = respiratory acidosis)

Electrocardiographic features of 1st degree heart block and RVH: Right axis, R wave in V1>5mm, R/S in V1>1 and R/S in V6 >2.5.

Further information that may help clarify the cardiac status include:

Clinical examination (RV heave, loud P2, raised JVP, giant v waves, pulsatile liver, ascites, peripheral oedema).

CXR may show lung disease, and show evidence of pulmonary arterial hypertension (prominent pulmonary arteries with peripheral pruning).

Echocardiogram (TTE vs TOE)- will show RV hypertrophy, may reveal PA pressures if there is some TR (which is usual in pulmonary hypertension). Exclude Ostium primum ASD, Eisenmengers complex.

Pulmonary artery catheter will reveal PA pressures and cardiac output. V/Q is a poor test to investigate chronic RV hypertrophy.

Discussion

The ECG features of RVH are explored in this excellent article from LITFL. Thank you, Ed Burns!

In summary, the changes are as follows:

  • Right axis deviation
  • Dominant R wave in V1
  • Dominant S wave in V5-V6
  • Normal QRS duration (i.e. not a right bundle branch block)

Right ventricular strain patterns is also well covered there:

  • ST depression / T wave inversion in the anterior leads, V1 - V2
  • ST depression / T wave inversion in the inferior and right-facing limb leads ( II, III and aVF)

Now, as to what the college means by "clarify the cardiac status" - this is uncertain.

I guess that must mean "investigate the cardiac causes of these ECG changes and blood gas abnormalities".

That would have been a better way to word this question.

Thus, we have RVH on the ECG and a metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis and profound hypoxia on the ABG.

One immediately begins thinking about some sort of pulmonary arterial hypertension, pulmonic valve stenosis, massive PE, or a cyanotic heart defect with a right-to-left shunt.

How would one discriminate among these differentials?

By taking a thorough history, performing a complete examination, and requesting appropriate investigations.

  • History:
    • Features of pulmonary hypertension, incl. SOB, cyanosis, exercise in tolerance
    • History of foetal alcohol exposure or a family history of congenital heart defects
    • History of exposure to volatile toxins, disease-causing dust (eg. asbestos) or heavy smoking
    • History of thromboembolic disease, prothrombotic diathesis
  • Examination:
    • Features of pulmonary hypertension: split P2, opening snap of pulmonic valve, flow murmur though pulmonic valve, prominent a waves
    • Features of RVH: right parasternal heave, prominent a waves, tricuspid regurgitation murmur, cannon v waves
    • Features of RV failure: pulsatile liver, engorged pulsatile veins
    • Congential syndromic features which might lead one to investigate for congenital heart disease
  • Investigations
    • CXR to interrogate the mediastinal contour and to look for features of poulmonary hypertension
    • TTE to observe the characteristic echocardiographc features of the above
    • CTPA and bilateral lower limb dopplers to exclude thromboemolic cause for hypertension
    • Right heart study to measure the oxygen saturation in each chamber, looking for a ventricular septal defect - as well as measuring the pressures.

References

Myers, Gordon B., Howard A. Klein, and Bert E. Stofer. "The electrocardiographic diagnosis of right ventricular hypertrophy." American heart journal 35.1 (1948): 1-40. - this goes back to well before the lazyness of transthoracic echo.

CHEST has an old 1993 article about pulmonary hypertension, which has some relevance to this very day;
Rubin, L. J. "Primary pulmonary hypertension." CHEST Journal 104.1 (1993): 236-250.

If one wishes to avoid the right heart study, one may wish to examine these European guidelines:
Grünig, Ekkehard, et al. "Non-invasive diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension: ESC/ERS Guidelines with Updated Commentary of the Cologne Consensus Conference 2011." International journal of cardiology 154 (2011): S3-S12.

Question 25 - 2005, Paper 2

Outline the principles of management of superior vena caval obstruction.

College Answer

Principles of management include:

Diagnose it clinically

History - dyspnoea, head fullness, cough, lines, tumour

Examination - plethoric cyanosed facies, periorbital oedema, exopthalmos, conjunctival injection, fundal venous engorgement, raised non-pulsatile JVP, lymphadenopathy, Pemberton's sign, dilated arm and chest collaterals

Look for associated features

Central airway compression, recurrent laryngeal involvement, phrenic nerve paralysis, Horner'ssyndrome, cardiac tamponade, pleural effusion

Confirm by investigation and look for cause

Thoracic neoplasm (usually bronchogenic Ca or Non Hodgkin’s Lymphoma), retrosternal thyroid,mediastinal fibrosis (post infection), thrombosis from intravascular device, aneurysm

High resolution CT is the most useful investigation. Also consider CXR, bronchoscopy/biopsy, echocardiograph, mediastinoscopy/biopsy, Magnetic Resonance Imaging

Peripheral tissue diagnosis often successful - node biopsy, sputum cytology, Bone Marrow biopsy

Treat obstruction

Steroids, Deep X-Ray Therapy, chemotherapy, surgery when indicated. Anticoagulation andthrombolytic Rx for acute catheter related thrombosis.

Support as necessary

Initial vascular access - IVC territory. Prepare for peri-operative/anaesthesia risks - CVS collapse(tamponade), central airway obstruction, laryngeal dysfunction, associated respiratory dysfunction(pleural and pulmonary involvement)

Few candidates considered the significant risk of sedating/anaesthetising patients with a mediastinal mass.

Discussion

The causes of SVC obstruction can be divided into malignant and non-malignant.

The non-malignant causes are well summarised in a nice table in the below-referenced article.

I will paraphrase it in the structured answer offered below.

Type of SVC obstruction

Aetiology

Diagnosis

Management

Malignant

Malignant mass in thoracic inlet

History (eg. smoking)
CT
MRI
CXR

Surgical excision
SVC stenting by interventional radiology
Dexamethasone 
Radiation therapy

Non-malignant

Tuberculosis

Suspicious history, CT, CXR, aspiration and AFB/ZN stain/PCR  of the contents

Specific antituberculosis therapy
Surgical relief of obstruction
SVC stenting by interventional radiology

Abscess

CT, CXR, aspiration and gram stain / culture of the contents

Surgical drainage
Appropriate antibiotics

Goitre

CXR, CT, TFTs, biopsy of the mass

Surgical excision
Thyroid-suppressing medication eg. carbimazole
SVC stenting by interventional radiology

Thrombus

History of IJ CVC
CT with contrast, ultrasound

Antioagulation; clot retrieval by interventinal radiology procedure, or surgical embolectomy

Fibrosing mediastinitis

CT;
History of mediastinitis or mediastinal radiotherapy

Surgical relief of obstruction
SVC stenting by interventional radiology

Aortic aneurysm

Ct with contrast; TOE

Surgical management of aneurysm;
SVC stenting by interventional radiology

Superior vena cava obstruction receives a (slightly) more detailed treatment in the "Required Reading" section, in a level of detail proportional to its value for the exam candidate.

References

MAURIEMARKMAN, MD. "Diagnosis and management of superior vena cava syndrome." Cleveland Clinic journal of medicine 66.1 (1999): 59.

Question 26 - 2005, Paper 2

Critically  evaluate  the  role  of anti-arrhythmic drugs in the  management of cardiac arrest.

College Answer

Several antiarrhythmic drugs are recommended in the ARC guidelines for use in VF/pulseless VT cardiac arrests and for bradycardia/asystole. However no drugs have been shown to improve long- term survival after cardiac arrests. Basic and advanced life support, early access to defibrillation and treatment of reversible causes take priority.

Guideline recommended drugs that should be considered include:

Lignocaine 1-1.5mg/kg, Amiodarone 300mg, Magnesium 5 mmol and atropine (1-3 mg).

Lignocaine is a class 1 antiarrhythmic, sodium channel blocker and has been traditionally used in VF/ pulseless VT cardiac arrest and while it is listed as first line in the ARC guidelines, the evidence for its use is limited. It should be given as a bolus for refractive VF/VT and occasionally can be used when the patient has recurrent VF/VT to prevent recurrence. Prophylactic use in AMI not complicated by arrhythmia is not recommended as there is some evidence that it may worsen overall prognosis.

Amiodarone is a complex antiarrhythmic drug with effects on sodium, potassium and calcium channels and alpha and beta blocking effects. It is an effective antiarrhythmic agent for both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias and it also causes less cardiac depression than other antiarrhythmics. It thus has some advantage over lignocaine. It is toxic to the tissues if it extravasates and is recommended for central venous administration but administration into an antecubital vein in the cardiac arrest situation is acceptable. Bolus injection of 300mg can be

followed by 150 mg if no effect and can be followed by infusion. Amiodarone has been shown to be better than placebo and lignocaine in terms of survival to hospital admission after out of hospital cardiac arrest due to refractory VF.

Magnesium is recommended by the ARC particularly for: Torsades de points, digoxin toxicity, and demonstrated hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia. It can be given as a 5mmol bolus which can be repeated and followed by infusion. There are no clinical studies using magnesium in this setting but it has been demonstrated to be a useful antiarrhythmic in postoperative cardiac surgical patients (Level 1 evidence).

Atropine is recommended by the ARC for use in severe bradycardia and in asystole. There are no controlled or randomised studies supporting its use. It can be given in 1 mg boluses up to 3 mg.

Discussion

This question, written in 2005, pre-dates the changes in ARC guidelines which have done away with lignocaine and atropine, leaving behind only amiodarone. This drug now occupies a shaky position after the third cycle of CPR for a shockable rhythm; the objective of using it is really to convert a defibrillation-refractory VF into one which is defibrillation-sensitive.

The evidence for its use is supported by two trials (Dorian et al 2002, and Somberg et al 2002) which found some benefit of amiodarone over lignocaine in the context of shock refractory or recurrent VT and VF. There was no benefit in survival to hospital discharge, but there was some benefit in survival to hospital admission. This better than the evidence for any other anitarrhytmic drug, and thus amiodarone remains in the guidelines ...for now.

All of this information is available in the ARC Guideline 11.5: Medications in Adult Cardiac Arrest. In brief summary, other drugs which are covered by this guidelines statement are as follows:

  • Adrenaline: Favoured because retrospective studies have found an improvement in the rates of ROSC with adrenaline; however there has never been any confirmed improvement in survival associated with it.
  • Calcium: Not recommended routinely; no benefit in terms of survival (6.8mmol calcium chloride as a bolus)
  • Lignocaine: Not as good as amiodarone, and thus recommended only for those situations when amiodarone cannot be used (1mg/kg bolus)
  • Magnesium: Recommended for torsades des pointes, but not recommended for any other situation, as there is no survival benefit. (5mmol bolus)
  • Potassium: Recommended for hypokalemic arrests only (5mmol bolus)
  • Sodium bicarbonate: Not recommended, as it is associated with poor short-term and long-term outcomes.
  • Vasopressin: Not recommended as an alternative to adrenaline, as there is insufficient data to support its use.
  • Aminophylline: There is no evidence of harm, but there is insufficient evidence to recommend its routine use.
  • Thrombolytics: Recommended only in confirmed or strongly suspected massive PE as a cause of cardiac arrest, in which case one is committed to performing CPR for 60-90 minutes.

Rationale for the use of antiarrhythmic drugs in cardiac arrest

  • Cardiac arrest is often the consequence of a non-perfusing arrhythmia. Ergo, an antiarrhythmic drug is the correct treatment.
  • The energy required to defibrillate is decreased by acute administration of amiodarone (in dogs - Fain et al, 1987)
  • The use of anti-arrhythmics may not be guided by any scientific principles, but it appears so deeply ingrained that it has become accepted as standard practice. Therefore to abjure the use of antiarrhythmics would be viewed as a substantial departure from standard practice. What would the coroner say?

Arguments against the use of antiarrhythmic drugs in cardiac arrest

  • Pro-arrhythmic properties of antiarrhythmics must be taken into account; even amiodarone can produce QTc prolongation and torsade.
  • The addition of extra drugs or steps to the algorithm complicates it, and makes it more difficult to teach (and to follow).
  • The improvement of survival to hospital admission may not translate into any improvement in survival (in fact, none of the studies have found any improvement in survival)
  • All the trials involving athiarrhythmics have compared one drug to another; there have been no placebo-controlled trials. We do not know what would happen without these drugs. Would survival rates drop sharply?

References

ARC Guideline 11.5: Medications in Adult Cardiac Arrest

 

Levine, Joseph H., et al. "Intravenous amiodarone for recurrent sustained hypotensive ventricular tachyarrhythmias." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 27.1 (1996): 67-75.

 

Dorian, Paul, et al. "Amiodarone as compared with lidocaine for shock-resistant ventricular fibrillation." New England Journal of Medicine 346.12 (2002): 884-890.

 

Skrifvars, M. B., et al. "The use of undiluted amiodarone in the management of out‐of‐hospital cardiac arrest." Acta anaesthesiologica scandinavica 48.5 (2004): 582-587.

 

Somberg, John C., et al. "Intravenous lidocaine versus intravenous amiodarone (in a new aqueous formulation) for incessant ventricular tachycardia." The American journal of cardiology 90.8 (2002): 853-859.

Kudenchuk, Peter J., et al. "Amiodarone for resuscitation after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation." New England Journal of Medicine 341.12 (1999): 871-878.

Ong, Marcus Eng Hock, Tommaso Pellis, and Mark S. Link. "The use of antiarrhythmic drugs for adult cardiac arrest: a systematic review." Resuscitation 82.6 (2011): 665-670.

Huang, Yu, et al. "Antiarrhythmia drugs for cardiac arrest: a systemic review and meta-analysis." Crit Care 17.4 (2013): R173.

Fain, Eric S., John T. Lee, and Roger A. Winkle. "Effects of acute intravenous and chronic oral amiodarone on defibrillation energy requirements." American heart journal 114.1 (1987): 8-17.

Question 6 - 2006, Paper 1

Outline the causes and principles of management of ventricular fibrillation.

College Answer

Causes: Ventricular fibrillation requires an initiating stimulus in a susceptible myocardium. VF can be induced in a previously normal myocardium as a result of electrical stimulation (electrocution, lightning) or by trauma (commotio cordis,  not to be confused with contusio cordis which is the systolic dysfunction resulting from blunt cardiac trauma). The myocardium can be made more susceptible by the presence of hypoxaemia (e.g. respiratory arrest), electrolyte disturbances (low K and Mg), altered autonomic and vagal inputs, and mechanical stimuli (e.g. wire or catheter in RV). The myocardium may be abnormally susceptible due to congenital (e.g. conduction abnormalities) or acquired disorders (including ischaemia, hypertrophy, myocarditis, pro-arrhythmic drugs, etc).

Principles of management: include early defibrillation, but in concert with correction of any correctible cause (e.g. wire, electrolytes, hypoxaemia etc), support of the cardio-respiratory state with adequate basic life support, and restoration of an appropriate metabolic milieu to support a normal rhythm. This latter approach may require performance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and administration of vasoconstrictors and specific anti-arrhythmic drugs, especially in the setting of prolonged VF. According to the ALS guidelines in place when the question was set, defibrillation is performed with an appropriate energy level for either monophasic (eg.

200/200/360J) or biphasic (eg. 150/150/150J) defibrillator waveforms in a series of up to three sequential shocks. Subsequent monophasic shocks should be administered at maximal dose.

The longer-term management, including the use of implantable defibrillators should be considered according to published guidelines.

Candidates were not penalised if they did not discuss the new guidelines (including higher energy levels for monophasic, and a single shock approach).

Discussion

This question is grounded in the ARC guidelines.

Causes of VF:

  • Cardiac ischaemia
  • Electrical myocardial injury
  • Traumatic myocardial injury
  • Irritating mechanical stimulus (eg. CVC guidewires, PA catheter)
  • Myocarditis

Predisposition to VF:

  • Low potassium
  • Low magnesium
  • Hypoxia
  • Arrhythmogenic drugs eg. theophylline, sympathomimetics
  • Congential and idopathic predisposition
  • Prior cardiac surgery
  • Cardiac chamber hypertrophy
  • Severe hypothermia

Principles of management of VF:

  • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation with an emphasis on uninterrupted chest compressions
  • Early defibrillation - single shock
  • When it is witnessed in a monitored environment and the defibrillator is readily available, three "stacked" shocks may be used.
  • Correction of immediately responsible cause (eg. withdrawal of PA catheter, or immediate angiography for myocardial infarction)
  • Correction of predisposing causes (eg. hypoxia, hypokalemia)
  • Consideration for an automated implantable defibrilator (AICD).

References

 

ARC Guideline 11.2: Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support

 

Chen, Qiuyun, et al. "Genetic basis and molecular mechanism for idiopathic ventricular fibrillation." Nature 392.6673 (1998): 293-296.

 

Wiggers, Carl J. "The mechanism and nature of ventricular fibrillation." American Heart Journal 20.4 (1940): 399-412.

 

Beck, Claude S., Walter H. Pritchard, and Harold S. Feil. "Ventricular fibrillation of long duration abolished by electric shock." Journal of the American Medical Association 135.15 (1947): 985-986.

 

Question 22 - 2006, Paper 1

Outline  the  indications  for and  the  potential  complications  of Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump (IABP) insertion.

College Answer

Indications for IABP insertion include:
•    Prophylactic (eg. cardiac surgery left main with unstable angina; or non cardiac surgery with severe Left Ventricular impairment)
•    Failure to wean from CPB
•    Cardiogenic shock – acute MR/VSD
•    Support for re-perfusion/revascularisation
•    Bridge to heart transplant

Potential complications include:
•    Limb ischemia
•    Vascular trauma, dissection
•    Infection
•    Balloon rupture
•    Bleeding

•    Thrombocytopenia
•    Malposition, vascular obstruction
•    Malfunction, failure to unwrap

Discussion

Indications for insertion and complications of use of IABPs are discussed in greater detail elsewhere.

In brief summary:

Indications for IABP use:

No choice but pump

  • Failure to come off bypass
  • Severe ischaemic mitral regurgitation or ventricular septal defect
    with haemodynamic compromise, while waiting for repair

Probably harmless, but probably not useful

  • High risk CABG patients (pre-op)
  • High-risk PCI patients (pre-op)
  • Cardiogenic shock while waiting for PCI
  • Pulmonary oedema in spite of maximal medical management

Totally experimental

  • Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
  • Neurogenic stress cardiomyopathy of subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Severe aortic stenosis with cardiogenic shock

Complications of IABP use:

  • Common complications
    • Mild limb ischaemia - 2.9%
    • Balloon leak - 1.0%
    • Major limb ischaemia - 0.9%
    • Haemorrhage - 0.8%
    • Leg amputation due to ischaemia - 0.1%
  • Rare complications
    • Atheromatous cholesterol emboli
    • Aortic or arterial dissection
    • Cerebrovascular accident
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Haemolysis
    • Helium embolism

References

Ranucci, Marco, et al. "A Randomized Controlled Trial of Preoperative Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump in Coronary Patients With Poor Left Ventricular Function Undergoing Coronary Artery Bypass Surgery." Critical care medicine (2013). 2013 Nov;41(11):2476-83.

 

Theologou, Thomas, et al. "Preoperative intra aortic balloon pumps in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting." Cochrane Database Syst Rev 1 (2011).

 

Ohman, E. Magnus, et al. "Use of aortic counterpulsation to improve sustained coronary artery patency during acute myocardial infarction. Results of a randomized trial. The Randomized IABP Study Group." Circulation 90.2 (1994): 792-799.

Gutfinger, Dan E., et al. "Aggressive preoperative use of intraaortic balloon pump in elderly patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting." The Annals of thoracic surgery 67.3 (1999): 610-613.

 

Thiele H, Zeymer U, Neumann FJ, Ferenc M, Olbrich HG, Hausleiter J, Richardt G, Hennersdorf M, Empen K, Fuernau G, Desch S, Eitel I, Hambrecht R, Fuhrmann J, Böhm M, Ebelt H, Schneider S, Schuler G, Werdan K; IABP-SHOCK II Trial Investigators: Intraaortic balloon support for myocardial infarction with cardiogenic shock. N Engl J Med 2012, 367:1287-1296

 

Parissis, Haralabos, et al. "The need for intra aortic balloon pump support following open heart surgery: risk analysis and outcome." J Cardiothorac Surg 5 (2010): 20.

 

Eagle, Kim A., et al. "ACC/AHA 2004 guideline update for coronary artery bypass graft surgery: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines (Committee to Update the 1999 Guidelines for Coronary Artery Bypass Graft Surgery)." Circulation 110.14 (2004): e340.

 

BUCKLEY, MORTIMER J., et al. "Intra-aortic balloon pump assist for cardiogenic shock after cardiopulmonary bypass.Circulation 48.1S3 (1973): III-90.

 

Sjauw, Krischan D., et al. "A systematic review and meta-analysis of intra-aortic balloon pump therapy in ST-elevation myocardial infarction: should we change the guidelines?." European heart journal 30.4 (2009): 459-468.

 

Unverzagt, Susanne, et al. "Intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation (IABP) for myocardial infarction complicated by cardiogenic shock." Cochrane Database Syst Rev 7 (2011).

 

Perera, Divaka, et al. "Elective intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation during high-risk percutaneous coronary intervention." JAMA: the journal of the American Medical Association 304.8 (2010): 867-874.

 

GOLD, HERMAN K., et al. "Intraaortic balloon pumping for ventricular septal defect or mitral regurgitation complicating acute myocardial infarction." Circulation 47.6 (1973): 1191-1196.

 

Kettner, Jiri, et al. "Utility of Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump Support for Ventricular Septal Rupture and Acute Mitral Regurgitation Complicating Acute Myocardial Infarction."The American journal of cardiology (2013).

 

Aksoy, Olcay, et al. "Cardiogenic shock in the setting of severe aortic stenosis: role of intra-aortic balloon pump support." Heart 97.10 (2011): 838-843.

 

Lazaridis, Christos, et al. "Intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation in the setting of subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral vasospasm, and neurogenic stress cardiomyopathy. Case report and review of the literature." Neurocritical care 13.1 (2010): 101-108.

 

Madhavan  M., Rihal  C.S., Lerman  A., Prasad  A.; Acute heart failure in apical ballooning syndrome (takotsubo syndrome/stress cardiomyopathy): clinical correlates and Mayo Clinic risk score. J Am Coll Cardiol. 57 2011:1400-1401.

 

Braunwald, Eugene, et al. "ACC/AHA 2002 guideline update for the management of patients with unstable angina and non–ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction—summary articlea report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines (Committee on the Management of Patients With Unstable Angina)." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 40.7 (2002): 1366-1374.

 

Yutani, Chikao, et al. "CEREBRO‐SPINAL INFARCTION CAUSED BY ATHEROMATOUS EMBOLI." Pathology International 35.4 (1985): 789-801.

 

Ho, A. C., et al. "Stroke after intraaortic balloon counterpulsation associated with mobile atheroma in thoracic aorta diagnosed using transesophageal echocardiography." Chang Gung medical journal 25.9 (2002): 612-616.

 

Kvilekval, Kara HV, et al. "Complications of percutaneous intra-aortic balloon pump use in patients with peripheral vascular disease." Archives of Surgery 126.5 (1991): 621.

 

Rius, Jordi Bañeras, et al. "Resolution of Shock-Induced Aortic Regurgitation With an Intraaortic Balloon Pump." Circulation 124.4 (2011): e131-e131.

 

Ferguson, James J., et al. "The current practice of intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation: results from the Benchmark Registry." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 38.5 (2001): 1456-1462.

 

Alderman, James D., et al. "Incidence and management of limb ischemia with percutaneous wire-guided intraaortic balloon catheters." Journal of the American college of Cardiology 9.3 (1987): 524-530.

 

Pennington, D. Glenn, et al. "Intraaortic balloon pumping in cardiac surgical patients: a nine-year experience." The Annals of thoracic surgery 36.2 (1983): 125-131.

 

Cruz-Flores, Salvador, Alan L. Diamond, and Enrique C. Leira. "Cerebral air embolism secondary to intra-aortic balloon pump rupture." Neurocritical Care 2.1 (2005): 49-50.

 

HIROOKA, KAZUNOBU, et al. "Helium Gas Embolism caused by a Ruptured Intraaortic Balloon." Japanese Journal of Intensive Care Medicine 27.9 (2003): 867-871.

 

Mitchell, Simon J., et al. "Cerebral arterial gas embolism by helium: an unusual case successfully treated with hyperbaric oxygen and lidocaine." Annals of emergency medicine 35.3 (2000): 300-303.

 

Chockalingam, Anand, et al. "Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in acute myocardial infarction with shock cause, effect, and coincidence." Circulation116.5 (2007): e110-e113.

 

Question 27 - 2006, Paper 1

Clinical examination of a 35 year old man who is short of breath reveals a pansystolic murmur.  Outline  the salient  clinical features and  investigations  which will help you distinguish  between  mitral  regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation and  a  ventricular septal defect in this setting.

College Answer

This question lends itself to answering with table. An example of the sort of information that could
be provided is included in the following example table:

MR

TR

VSD

Symptoms

Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Dyspnoea, orthopnea, palpitations, Chest Pain

Pedal oedema,
Chest Pain, Short
Of Breath

Chest Pain, Short
Of Breath

Pulse

Commonly AF

May be AF

Usually Sinus
Rhythm

JVP

May be raised

V waves

Prominent a waves
because of pulmonary hypertension

Precordium

Systolic Thrill +/-
Parasternal lift +/-

Systolic Thrill +/-
Parasternal lift +/-

Systolic Thrill +/-
Parasternal lift +/-

Murmur

Apical to axilla

Left Sternal Border,
increases with inspiration

Left Sternal
Border, occasionally concomitant Atrial Regurgitation

Other systemic
signs

Basal crepitations

Pulsatile liver

Other congenital
abnormalities +/-

Chest X-Ray

Straight Left heart
border, pulmonary oedema

Enlarged Right
Atrium

Nil specific

Echocardiogram

Classic features

Classic features

Classic features

Pulmonary Artery
Catheter

Pulmonary
hypertension

Pulmonary
hypertension, V waves on Central Venous Pressure

Step up in O2
saturation at
ventricular level

Discussion

To answer this, I have referred again to my own tabulated summary of heart murmurs.

One can do little to improve on the table presented in the college answer.

The MR and TR are easy to tell apart. TR gets louder on inspiration, and causes a pulsatile liver.

MR gets louder on expiration, and causes pulmonary oedema.

The VSD is a little more tricky, and apart from occasionally causing pulmonary hypertension its murmur is difficult to distinguish from the others.

Both VSD and MR will be loudest on expiration, but VSD will be most audible at the left sternal border, whereas the MR is best heard near the apex.

References

Clinical Examination of the Critically Ill Patient, 3rd edition by L.I.G. Worthley - which can be ordered from our college here.

 

Clinical Examination: whatever edition, by Talley and O'Connor. Can be acquired anywhere.

 

Question 29 - 2006, Paper 1

A 76 year old woman  with severe ischaemic heart disease being treated with aspirin, clopidogrel  and  metoprolol  presents with  severe  abdominal and  back  pain,  6 hours after being discharged home from a routine cardiac angiogram via the femoral route. List the differential diagnosis.   Outline how you would investigate the cause of the abdominal pain.

College Answer

The  differential   diagnosis   could  be  large  and  should  include  pancreatitis,  retroperitoneal
haematoma, aortic dissection, cholecystitis, infarcted gut, Gastro-Intestinal perforation, diverticular disease, pericarditis, myocardial infarction/ischaemia, pneumothorax, etc.
Investigation  includes, in addition to a proper history (character, type, severity, position of pain, associated features etc), and a full clinical examination (signs of all the above possibilities) a number of relevant investigations. Consider: Amylase, Haemoglobin (has it fallen?), white blood cells,  Urea  &Electrolytes,  lactate,  Liver  Function  Tests,  Chest  X-Ray,  ECG  and  troponin, ultrasound abdomen, echocardiogram, CT scan abdomen depending on the most likely cause. A good answer would also include what would be expected from the investigations ordered.

Discussion

This question closely resembles Question 2 from the first paper of 2004.

In short, a thorough history and detailed physical examination would be a good start.

Differentials:

  • Aortic dissection
  • Retroperitoneal hematoma
  • Ischaemic gut
  • perforated viscus
  • cholecystitis
  • pancreatitis
  • splenic infarct

One would assess the abdomen particularly, looking for masses.

One would auscultate the abdomen, listening for a bruit of aortic dissection

One would also look for features of shock, metabolic acidosis, and peritonism, suggestive of ischaemic gut (due to emboli dislodged from the aorta)

A CXR, ABG, ECG, a full panel of bloods including FBC, LFT, amylase/lipase and inflammatory makers.

An abdominal ultrasound looking for vascular tree damage, and a CT of the abdomen with IV contrast to image the intraabdominal organs and their supplying vessel

References

Question 8 - 2006, Paper 2

Critically evaluate the interpretation of plasma troponin measurement in critically ill patients.

College Answer

Key features

•    Troponin I, T and C form a 3 unit complex with tropomyosin in cardiac actin filament, CTnI and cTnT used as cardiac specific markers, small amount in cytoplasm but a large actin pool, slowly released, and slowly degraded with small elevation in renal failure


•    Greater sensitivity to cardiac damage than CK-MB which can also be found in skeletal muscle (increased in myopathies), gut, uterus, and IgG complexes CK-MB, rises 4-6 h after onset symptoms for myocardial infarction, useful prognostic marker in acute coronary syndromes (higher level = worse prognosis)


•    Elevated level also seen with PE, sepsis, myocarditis, pericarditis, cardiac trauma, drug- induced myocardial injury, cardioversion

Discussion

This question is almost identical to Question 10 from the second paper of 2011.

To simplify revision and wreck some SEO, the answer for Question 10 is reproduced below.

Rationale for the use of troponin in the critically ill:

  • Troponin is an enzyme involved in the excitation-contraction coupling of the myocardium.
  • Troponin T serves to attach the troponin complex to actin and tropomyosin.
  • Myocardiac damage (for example infarction) causes the release of troponin.
  • There is a cytosolic pool (which is released early in the infarct) and a structural pool (which is slowly released over days as the damaged myocardium decomposes).

Advantages of using troponin in critically ill patients

  • Its a sensitive and specific marker of myocardial ischaemia.
  • It is more sensitive and specific than AST, CK and CK-MB (which are also found is skeletal muscle)
  • It is an independent predictor of 30-day mortality in STEMI 
  • It is associated with a poorer outcome in the critically ill patients.
  • Troponin levels can be used to monitor for myocardial ischaemia in critically ill patients when history and examination are unreliable.

Advantages of using troponin in acute coronary syndromes

  • Troponin forms a part of the ECS and AHA universal definition of acute coronary syndrome (it consists of a troponin rise as well as a demonstration of ischaemic symptoms,  echocardiographic evidence, or ECG changes.)
  • The troponin levels are not diagnostic, but are a risk stratification tool to be used together with echocardiography, ECG, history and examination.
  • Troponin levels can be used for the late diagnosis of MI and to monitor for reinfarction
  •  The use of troponin as a part of a risk stratification strategy is important in selecting patients for anticoagulation and anti-platelet therapy, so as to prevent the exposure of patients to unnecessary bleeding risk.

Disadvantages for the use of troponin in critical illness

  • A reliance on biomarkers may become unhealthy if it takes focus off clinical examination and history.
  • It is not quantitatively validated outside the setting of ACS / AMI, but only qualitatively: i.e. a "positive" troponin is associated with worse outcomes in noncardiac critical illness, but we don't know whether a higher troponin is associated with a proportionally higher mortality.
  • As with all biomarkers, inappropriately low threshold levels or testing out of appropriate clinical context could give rise to unnecessary treatments (eg. loading doses of antiplatelet drugs) or investigations (eg. angiography, with needless contrast exposure)
  • Troponin levels can be raised for a variety of non-cardiac reasons.In their 2006 article, Korff et aloffer an excellent table of things which cause troponin elevation, together with the mechanism of troponin release or assay confusion. Their Table 1 is reinterpreted here. 
    • Myocarditis 
    • Renal failure - its cleared renally
    • Sepsis
    • Atrial fibrillation
    • Post-cardioversion 
    • Cardiac trauma 
    • Pulmonary embolism 
    • Acute stroke
    • Intracranial haemorrhage
    • Severe burns
    • Rhabdomyolysis (particularly during recovery)
    • Skeletal muscle damage in glycogen storage disease
    • Defective assay (cross-reactivity with skeletal troponin isoforms)

References

This article has a nice graph of cardiac biomarker concentrations over time after an infarct:
Wu et al; National Academy of Clinical Biochemistry Standards of Laboratory Practice: Recommendations for the Use of Cardiac Markers in Coronary Artery Diseases. Clinical Chemistry 45:7 1104 –1121 (1999)

There is a CICM fellowship question regarding the critical appraisal of troponin in the ICU population.

The ECS and AHA statement referred to in the college answer is this article published in Circulation in 2007:

(Kristian Thygesen et al; Universal Definition of Myocardial Infarction. Circulation 2007, 116:2634-2653

This article from Current Opinion in Critical care (2004) discusses the various causes of raised troponin among ICU patients:


Ammann et al,Troponin as a risk factor for mortality in critically ill patients without acute coronary syndromes. Journal of the American College of Cardiology Volume 41, Issue 11, 4 June 2003, Pages 2004–2009

The fact that troponin rise among the critically ill population is associated with a poorer prognosis is supported by this study:


Gunnewiek et al. Cardiac troponin elevations among critically ill patients. Current Opinion in Critical Care: October 2004 - Volume 10 - Issue 5 - pp 342-346

Liu, Michael, et al. "Prognostic Value of Initial Elevation in Cardiac Troponin I Level in Critically Ill Patients Without Acute Coronary Syndrome." Critical care nurse 35.2 (2015): e1-e10.

Ahmed, Amna N., et al. "Prognostic significance of elevated troponin in non-cardiac hospitalized patients: A systematic review and meta-analysis." Annals of medicine 46.8 (2014): 653-663.

Ammann, P., et al. "Elevation of troponin I in sepsis and septic shock." Intensive care medicine 27.6 (2001): 965-969.

Landesberg, Giora, et al. "Troponin elevation in severe sepsis and septic shock: the role of left ventricular diastolic dysfunction and right ventricular dilatation." Critical care medicine 42.4 (2014): 790-800.

Smith, Andria, et al. "Elevated cardiac troponins in sepsis: what do they signify?." West Virginia Medical Journal 105.4 (2009): 29-33.

Tiruvoipati, Ravindranath, Nasreen Sultana, and David Lewis. "Cardiac troponin I does not independently predict mortality in critically ill patients with severe sepsis." Emergency Medicine Australasia 24.2 (2012): 151-158.

Suarez, Keith, et al. "TROPONIN TESTING IN PATIENTS HOSPITALIZED FOR SEPSIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASED CARDIOVASCULAR TESTING AND LENGTH OF STAY." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 67.13 (2016): 451.

Sheyin, Olusegun, et al. "The prognostic significance of troponin elevation in patients with sepsis: a meta-analysis." Heart & Lung: The Journal of Acute and Critical Care 44.1 (2015): 75-81.

Hunter, J. D., and M. Doddi. "Sepsis and the heart." British journal of anaesthesia 104.1 (2009): 3-11.

Vieillard-Baron, Antoine, et al. "Actual incidence of global left ventricular hypokinesia in adult septic shock." Critical care medicine 36.6 (2008): 1701-1706.

Donzé, Jacques D., et al. "Impact of sepsis on risk of postoperative arterial and venous thromboses: large prospective cohort study." BMJ 349 (2014): g5334.

Korff, Susanne, Hugo A. Katus, and Evangelos Giannitsis. "Differential diagnosis of elevated troponins." Heart 92.7 (2006): 987-993.

Wens, Stephan CA, et al. "Elevated Plasma Cardiac Troponin T Levels due to Skeletal Muscle Damage in Pompe Disease." Circulation: Genomic and Precision Medicine (2016): CIRCGENETICS-115.

Sribhen, Kosit, Rewat Phankingthongkum, and Nilrat Wannasilp. "Skeletal muscle disease as noncardiac cause of cardiac troponin T elevation." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 59.14 (2012): 1334-1335.

Question 15 - 2006, Paper 2

You are phoned for advice by a doctor in a small and remote regional hospital emergency department who has just seen a 66 year old man.   He presents with central chest discomfort and dyspnoea which has been present for 60 minutes. The following ECG has arrived by fax.

a)          Please report the abnormalities on this ECG.

b)          Outline the management advice which you will give to the regional doctor.

College Answer

ECG abnormalities
There is a right bundle branch block

Q waves in leads II, III and aVF - indicative of old inferior myocardial infarction.
>2mm ST segment elevation in leads V2 and V3 . There is also ST elevation leads V4 & V5. This is STEMI (ST elevated myocardial infarction) in a man with ECG evidence of previous myocardial infarction.

Management issues
1) This man should already have had aspirin, GTN, oxygen and morphine –this needs to be checked with the referring doctor.

2) Since he is <12 hrs from presentation and is in a remote hospital, then interhospital transfer to receive Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) should be considered, but would be impossible within the required 90 minutes from symptom onset. Therefore he needs urgent thrombolysis.

3) Can the hospital administer thrombolysis? What have they got, do they know how to administer it. Do they recognise the urgency of administration?
4) After administration he will need anti-thrombotic treatment (heparin infusion)  and needs urgent transfer to a centre able to perform PCI and/or surgery (particularly if he has evidence of cardiac failure). How he will be transferred and who will escort him must be considered. The receiving cardiologists need to be informed

Discussion

The management issue list in the answer is presented in a manner which most closely resembles a colloquial discussion of this matter over some beers.
Do they recognise the urgency of adminstration, we ponder.

Let us divide this into a structured model answer, based on the 2016 NHFACSANZ recommendations.

  • Immediate management:
    • A: keep nil-by-mouth, given the possibility of impending need for intubation
    • B: maintain normoxia (no need for supplemental oxygen unless he becomes hypoxic)
    • C: Continue ECG monitoring and insert 2 x widebore cannulae. 
    • D: Analgesia with morphine 
    • E: Check electrolytes (even if only by ABG); maintain K+ around 4.5 and Mg++ around 1.0 mmol/L.
    • F: Check renal function to predict risk from contrast; commence pre-hydration with 1-2ml/kg/hr if there is known renal dysfunction
  • Supportive pharmacotherapy:
    • Nitrates - sublingual and then infusion if pain is still poorly controlled
    • Dual anti-platelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel/prasugrel/ticagrelor): strictly speaking, one could limit oneself to aspirin alone if the risk stratification put this guy into a low risk category, but already the combination of ST elevation and ongoing chest pain places him into a high risk category which merits DAPT according to the NHF guidelines.
    • Heparin infusion (same reason, risk category for rebound ischaemia is high)
  • Definitive management
    • Thrombolysis (contraindications to thrombolysis are discussed in the chapter on pulmonary embolism)
    • Urgent transfer to cardiac cath lab in nearest hospital capable of percutaneous intervention
    • Hand-over to medical retrieval team and receiving cardiologist

In general, it seems in Australia about 26% of ACS patients fall into this category (i.e. they need transfer to definitive management). The hospital is described as "small and remote", which presumably means that the time to PCI would be more than 30 minutes. The NHF recommend immediate thrombolysis followed by transfer to the nearest cath lab within 24 hours. The logistics of the transfer itself would be unique to the geography of the scenario, and would depend on what facilities for retrieval and PCI are available to this regional doctor. There would be obvious implications if he were surrounded by farmland, in the middle of the outback, aboard an oil platform, or in the Antarctic.  

References

Chew, Derek P., et al. "Acute coronary syndrome care across Australia and New Zealand: the SNAPSHOT ACS study." Medical Journal of Australia 199.3 (2013): 185-191.

Sørensen, Jacob Thorsted, et al. "Urban and rural implementation of pre-hospital diagnosis and direct referral for primary percutaneous coronary intervention in patients with acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction." European heart journal 32.4 (2011): 430-436.

Chew, Derek P., et al. "National Heart Foundation of Australia & Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand: Australian clinical guidelines for the management of acute coronary syndromes 2016." Heart, Lung and Circulation 25.9 (2016): 895-951.

Hofmann, Robin, et al. "Oxygen therapy in suspected acute myocardial infarction." New England Journal of Medicine377.13 (2017): 1240-1249.

Question 20 - 2006, Paper 2

Critically evaluate the role of therapeutic hypothermia in the critically ill patient.

College Answer

Proven role:

1)  cardiac arrest – out of hospital VF arrest improved neurological outcome and survival

32-34C

2)  Control of intracranial hypertension – Improves ICP, but no reduction in mortality

Areas under investigation

1)  Stroke patients

2)  Perinatal asphyxia

Practical issues:

a)  difficulty in achieving hypothermia rapidly

b)  shivering and the need for relaxants which can delay neurological assessment c)  Not proven for non-vf arrests

d)  Not proven for in-hospital arrests

e)  Hypothermia can cause diuresis with attendant electrolyte disorders

f)       Risk of arrhythmias

g)  Risk of infection

Discussion

In general, therapeutic hypothermia in cardiac arrest and the physiology of hypothermia overall are discussed elsewhere. This question also asks about the extended indications for therapeutic hypothermia, which are generally not very well known (being exotic and enjoying only very patchy support from the ICU senior medical community).

In late 2015, this question would be interpreted very differently, and would likely attract a slightly different answer from the candidates. A good example might resemble the college answer to Question 9 from the first paper of 2015. The discussion section for that SAQ is reproduced below, as the two questions are virtually identical, and a 2006-specific answer would be of no interest to the modern candidates.

Rationale for therapeutic hypothermia:

  • Therapeutic hypothermia has been advanced a a means of improving survival and good neurological outcome following cardiac arrest.
  • It has also been offered as a means of controlling intracranial hypertension which is refractory to other modalities.
  • Therapeutic hypothermia modulates the activity of body proteins and electrolytes.
  • This modulation is thought to have some beneficial effects in scenarios where inflammatory damage is anticipated.
  • This also involves the down-modulation of the overall metabolic rate, which decreases the metabolic demands of the organism in situations where supply of metabolic substrate may be compromised.
  • Decrease in oxygen consumption matches decreased demand with decreased supply in "penumbra" areas, at the watersheds, where hypoxic injury has caused oedema.\

Advantages of therapeutic hypothermia

  • Decreased granulocyte migration into tissue
  • Decreased cerebral oedema
  • Intrinsic anticonvulsant effects of hypothermia

Well-accepted indications:

Evidence for use in cardiac arrest:

Evidence for use in traumatic brain injury

  • EUROTHERM 3235 trial (2015): 387 patients; hypothermia was used as a second-line therapy to reduce ICP.
  • No survival benefit was observed.
  • Recruitment was suspended early owing to safety concerns.
  • ICP control was in fact better in the hypothermia group (they required rescue therapies less frequently)
  • The meta-analysis mentioned by the college is possibly  this 2013 review by Georgiou et al; except there was no benefit in mortality when only high quality trial were included.

Extended indications:

Therapeutic hypothermia in cooling of a hyperthermic patient

  • Hyperthermia is associated with substantial harm, particularly if the temperature increases beyod 41°C
  • Causes of such hyperthermia may be numerous, including sepsis, malignant hyperthermia, anticholinergic drug poisoning, heat stroke, and so on and so forth.
  • In brief, these causes all have specific management strategies which may take time to work.
  • In the interim, the temperature must be managed, so that organ damage does not occur
  • Induction of hypothermia (or maintenance of controlled normothermia) by cooling the patient can be viewed as one of the indications.

Therapeutic hypothermia for subarachnoid haemorrhage

  • Theoretically, TH may be protective in SAH in the same way that it is supposed to be protective in traumatic brain injury. Areas affected by ischaemia in the context of vasospasm may benefit from having a lower metabolic rate.
  • TH certainly  seems to decrease the flow velocity in the MCA of subarachnoid haemorrhage patients (Seule et al, 2014), suggesting that the metabolic rate is indeed affected enough to influence cerebral blood flow.
  • Animal studies have also demonstrated that hypothermia reverses vasospasm (in rats)
  • In patients with "poor-grade" SAH, good functional outcome was achieved in 48% with the combination of barbiturate coma and hypothermia to 33-34°C (Gasser et al, 2003)
  • A more recent case series (Seule et al, 2010) found good outcomes in 57% of  severe SAH patients who developed vasospasm.
  • In contrast, Karnatovskaia et al (2014) found no difference in neurological outcome within their case series.
  • No recommendation in favour of this use of TH can be made with a straight face.

Therapeutic hypothermia for super-refractory status epilepticus

  • Hypothermia is known to have antiepileptic effects.
  • Case series (eg. Corry et al, 2008) have demonstrated its feasibility in humans (target temperature: 31–35°C)
  • Neurocritical care society guidelines for status epilepticus (Brophy et al, 2012) identified only 4 articles in the literature, and were unable to make very strong recommendations.
  • The HYBERNATUS trial mentioned in the college answer is apparently ongoing, but no longer recruiting participants.

Therapeutic hypothermia for severe sepsis

  • Anti-inflammatory effects of hypothermia were studied in an animal model of severe sepsis (Kwang et al, 2012).
  • The hypothermic rats (30–32 °C) did better in terms of acute lung and liver injury.
  • Human applications of this are limited by concern that ...firstly, a fever is an antibacterial physiological response, and secondly, that the haemodynamic instability of septic shock will be exacerbated by hypothermia.

Therapeutic hypothermia for meningitis

  • Evidence of potential harm mentioned by the college in their answer was found by a 2013 RCT (Mourvillier et al). The investigators found a higher mortality in the hypothermia group.

Therapeutic hypothermia for neonatal asphyxia

  • Following on from the success of TH in adult cardiac arrest, this modality has been applied to neonatal hypoxic-ischaemic encephalpathy.
  • Shankaran et al (2005) performed an RCT; the group of neonates who were cooled 33.5°C for 72 hours; the rate of cerebral palsy was reduced from 19% to 15%, and mortality improved from 37% to 24%. In the long term, there was no increase in disability among hypothermia-exposed survivors when compared to surviving controls (Shankaran et al, 2012)
  • TOBY trial (2014) confirmed that both survival and neurological outcome is improved

Therapeutic hypothermia for stroke

  • The college answer points out that fever is associated with two-fold risk of death after haemorrhagic or ischaemic stroke. Pharmacologic methods of fever control have not shown improved outcome in stroke.
  • In animal models of stroke, , mild or moderate hypothermia has been shown to decrease infarct size and lead to functional improvement when cooling was initiated within a few hours of ischemia onset (Clark et al, 2008). But... These were rats, and they were cooled to 24°C

Therapeutic hypothermia for acute hepatic encephalopathy

  • This use of TH is an extension of the observation that TH reduces cerebral oedema in patients with traumatic brain injury.
  • Some authors (Stravitz et al, 2008) have suggested that TH may be an effective bridge to liver transplant.
  • Human case series support this assertion (Jalan et al, 1999); during their treatment there was no significant relapse of increased intracranial pressure.
  • There are no RCTs, but a large-scale retrospective cohort (Karvellas et al, 2014) did not find any survival benefit.

Therapeutic hypothermia in ARDS :

  • Recent studies (Zhicheng et al, 2012) have confirmed that mild hypothermia improves gas exchange, lung compliance, duration of ventilation and the levels of IL-6 in local lung tissue.
  • Of particular interest is the use of hypothermia to reduce the whole-body oxygen demand in situations where even veno-venous ECMO is powerless to oxygenate the patient (Hayek et al, 2015)

Intraoperative therapeutic hypothermia

  • Cardiothoracic surgery, routinely in use (including DHCA).
  • Neurosurgery for aneurysm clipping: IHAST trial, 2005; no benefit ("good-grade" SAH patients)
  • Vascular surgery, to protect the spinal cord during prolonged aortic cross-clamp

Suspended animation for delayed resuscitation

  • In essence, this is a practice of stopping the circulation with deep hypothrmia, so as to buy time to the definitive management of the cause of the cardiac arrest.
  • Animal studies have demonstrated success with up to 90 minutes of no-flow (Safar et al, 2002)
  • Wu et al (2006) subjected dogs to rapid haemorrhage, and then used a 2°C saline aortic flush to achieve a brain temperature of 10°C. The dogs remained on ice for 2 hours, and were then revived on cardiopulmonary bypass.  Intact neurological outcome was achieved in 4 out of 6 dogs.

References

Polderman, Kees H. "Application of therapeutic hypothermia in the ICU: opportunities and pitfalls of a promising treatment modality. Part 1: Indications and evidence." Intensive care medicine 30.4 (2004): 556-575.

Seule, M., et al. "Therapeutic hypothermia reduces middle cerebral artery flow velocity in patients with severe aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage." Neurocritical care 20.2 (2014): 255-262.

Gasser, Stefan, et al. "Long‐Term Hypothermia in Patients with Severe Brain Edema After Poor‐Grade Subarachnoid Hemorrhage Feasibility and Intensive Care Complications." Journal of neurosurgical anesthesiology 15.3 (2003): 240-248.

Karnatovskaia, Lioudmila V., et al. "Effect of prolonged therapeutic hypothermia on intracranial pressure, organ function, and hospital outcomes among patients with aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage." Neurocritical care 21.3 (2014): 451-461.

Kim, Jong Youl, and Midori A. Yenari. "Hypothermia for treatment of stroke." Brain Circulation 1.1 (2015): 14.

Todd MM, Hindman BJ, Clarke WR, Torner JC; Intraoperative Hypothermia for Aneurysm Surgery Trial (IHAST) Investigators. Mild intraoperative hypothermia during surgery for intracranial aneurysm. N Engl J Med 2005;352:135-45.

Clark, Darren L., et al. "Comparison of 12, 24 and 48 h of systemic hypothermia on outcome after permanent focal ischemia in rat." Experimental neurology 212.2 (2008): 386-392.

Shankaran, Seetha, et al. "Whole-body hypothermia for neonates with hypoxic–ischemic encephalopathy." New England Journal of Medicine 353.15 (2005): 1574-1584.

Shankaran, Seetha, et al. "Childhood outcomes after hypothermia for neonatal encephalopathy." New England Journal of Medicine 366.22 (2012): 2085-2092.

Azzopardi, Denis, et al. "Effects of hypothermia for perinatal asphyxia on childhood outcomes." New England Journal of Medicine 371.2 (2014): 140-149.

Mourvillier, Bruno, et al. "Induced hypothermia in severe bacterial meningitis: a randomized clinical trial." JAMA 310.20 (2013): 2174-2183.

Rim, Kwang Pil, et al. "Effect of therapeutic hypothermia according to severity of sepsis in a septic rat model." Cytokine 60.3 (2012): 755-761.

Corry, Jesse J., et al. "Hypothermia for refractory status epilepticus." Neurocritical care 9.2 (2008): 189-197.

Villar, Jesus, and Arthur S. Slutsky. "Effects of induced hypothermia in patients with septic adult respiratory distress syndrome." Resuscitation 26.2 (1993): 183-192.

White, H. D., C. D. Spradley, and A. Hayek. "Therapeutic Hypothermia For Refractory Hypoxia In Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome Undergoing Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation." Am J Respir Crit Care Med 191 (2015): A4570.

Zhicheng, Fang, et al. "Effect of mild hypothermia treatment on mechanical ventilation of acute respiratory distress syndrome." Modern Journal of Integrated Traditional Chinese and Western Medicine 29 (2012): 002.

Stravitz, R. Todd, et al. "Therapeutic hypothermia for acute liver failure: toward a randomized, controlled trial in patients with advanced hepatic encephalopathy." Neurocritical care 9.1 (2008): 90-96.

Jalan, Rajiv, et al. "Moderate hypothermia for uncontrolled intracranial hypertension in acute liver failure." The Lancet 354.9185 (1999): 1164-1168.

Karvellas, C., et al. "A multicenter retrospective cohort analysis of therapeutic hypothermia in acute liver failure." Critical Care 18.Suppl 1 (2014): P200.

Wu, Xianren, et al. "Induction of profound hypothermia for emergency preservation and resuscitation allows intact survival after cardiac arrest resulting from prolonged lethal hemorrhage and trauma in dogs." Circulation 113.16 (2006): 1974-1982.

 

Question 13 - 2007, Paper 1

Compare and  contrast the advantages and  limitations  of the intra-aortic balloon  pump  (IABP)  and  ventricular assist  devices (VAD). (You  may tabulate your answer).                 

College Answer

IABP

VAD

Can be inserted percutaneously  in ICU  or CCU

While percutaneous insertion is possible, frequently require
anaesthesia and  a surgeon for insertion and removal.

Indications

Used post cardiac surgery /
cardiogenic                  shock following an infarct

Frequently  used   in   post 
cardiac surgical patients.
Used   as     a     bridge     to transplantation.

Logistics

Intensivists  more  familiar
with  IABP

Can   be  used during transport

Less familiar  with  VAD, 
greater degree  of complexity, more  difficult to use during transport

Anticoagulation

Usually     no       need      for anticoagulation

Need for anticoagulation

Not effective in the setting of      CI       <      1.2       and 
tachyarrhythmias

Greater control on  overall
cardiac output  as  well  as
Rt    and     Lt     ventricular output

Complications

Lower       limb       ischemia,
hematoma,   aortic   trauma are complications

Bleeding,             infection,
hemolysis, device failure

Discussion

I love it when they invite you to tabulate your answer.

Among the things worth mentioning is the horrific rate of infectious complications with the VAD (up to 50% of patients have an LVAD-associated infection) and the fact that its not merely anticoagulation, but insane anticoagulation that is required (APTT target is 150-200).

It is difficult to compare the two therapies, of course. An IABP is a supportive treatment to assist the recovering cardiac patient. The VAD is essentially a mechanical heart. There are reports of people who were awake, and asystolic, with a VAD in situ.

Beyond the tabulated answer offered here, the following chapters may be meaningful:

A slightly expanded answer, with more detail, is also offered:

LV Assist Device vs Intra-Aortic Balloon Counterpulsation
 

IABP

VAD

Indications

No choice but pump

  • Failure to come off bypass
  • Severe aortic stenosis
  • Mitral regurgitation
  • Ventricular septal defect 

Probably harmless, but probably not useful

  • High-risk PCI patients (pre-op) - IABP-SHOCK II
  • High-risk pre-CABG patients (low LVEF)
  • Cardiogenic shock while waiting for PCI (i.e. bridge to definitive intervention)
  • Pulmonary oedema in spite of maximal medical management

Totally experimental

  • Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
  • Neurogenic stress cardiomyopathy of subarachnoid haemorrhage

Known to be pointl

Firm indications:

  • Failure to come off bypass
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Fulminant myocarditis

Potential indications:

  • High risk CABG patients (pre-op)
  • High-risk PCI patients (pre-op)

Contraindications

Absolute contraindications

  • Aortic regurgitation
  • Aortic aneurysm
  • Aortic dissection
  • Severe sepsis
  • Uncontrolled coagulopathy

Relative contraindications

  • Atherosclerosis and arterial tortuosity
  • Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
  • Contraindications to anticoagulation
  • Aortic regurgitation
  • Aortic aneurysm
  • Aortic dissection
  • Severe sepsis
  • Uncontrolled coagulopathy
  • Left heart thrombus

Advantages

  • Bedside insertion
  • Familiarity among ICU staff
  • Less invasive
  • Flow is pulsatile; organ perfusion benefits
  • Able to compensate for all cardiac function (i.e. useful in the setting of asystole)
  • May remain in situ for longer than the IABP
  • Contrary to the college answer above ("more difficult to use during transport") most patients with VADs can be mobilised normally (Mohiyaddin, 2018)

Disadvantages

  • Useless if the cardiac index is less than 1.5
  • Insertion may be frustrated by poor peripheral arterial anatomy
  • Non-pulsatile flow; poor organ perfusion
  • Requires sternotomy for insertion (for most except the TandemHeart device, which can be inserted percutaneously)
  • Unfamiliarity among ICU staff

Anticoagulation

May not require anticoagulation

Requires mandatory anticoagulation

Complications

  • Common complications
    • Mild limb ischaemia - 2.9%
    • Balloon leak - 1.0%
    • Major limb ischaemia - 0.9%
    • Haemorrhage - 0.8%
    • Leg amputation due to ischaemia - 0.1%
  • Rare complications
    • Atheromatous cholesterol emboli
    • Aortic or arterial dissection
    • Cerebrovascular accident
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Haemolysis
    • Helium embolism
  • Infection is the major cause of morbidity; something like 50% of the implanted devices get infected.
  • The LV gets (understandably) irritated by the presence of an LVAD, and in 25% of patients ventricular arrhythmias develop
  • Thrombi form on the walls of the device in spite of anticoagulation, and 10-16% of people have thrombotic complications.
  • Some degree of haemolysis and thrombocytopenia occur in everybody

Even more broadly, the chapter on mechanical haemodynamic support strategies contains a comparison of several other mechanical methods of increasing cardiac output.

References

To the tabulated answer presented here, I would add a reference or two to aid those (like me) who have never even seen a VAD.

 

UpToDate has a nice chapter on VADs.

 

My own barebones summary of the VAD is available here. IABP receives a slightly more elaborate treatment here.

 

EMCrit brandishes the expertise of somebody who works with these things, and I take that seriously.

 

Additionally, there is an insanely colourful brochure which has device-specific recommendations.

Question 19 - 2007, Paper 1

Outline the important changes to Basic and  Advanced Life Support guidelines for Adults in the latest revision issued by the Australian Resuscitation Council in 2006.

College Answer

Basic Life Support

a)  No signs of life equals: unresponsiveness, not breathi.ng, not moviri.g normally.
Pulse check not required to commence CPR.
b)  The term" Rescue Breathing'' has replaced Expired Air resuscitation
c)  Compression ventilation ratio 30:2 for children & adults. d)  Same ratio regardless of number of rescuers
e)  Identifying the lower halfof sternum by visualizing the centre of chest, no
. need  to measure and remeasure                                .
f)  2 initial breaths, not 5.
g)  Chest compressions at 100 Imin

Advanced Life Support

.  a)  Minimise interruptions to chest compressions
b)  If unwitnessed arrest,  VF or pulseless VT,.single shock instead of stacked shocks.

c)  If witnessed arrest-up to 3 shocks may be given at the first attempt.

d)  If monophasic defibrillator-energy level360 J
e)  Ifbiphasic defibrillator-energy level200 J
f)   If unsure of device, use 200

J. After each defibrillation, 2 min of CPR before checking.pulse.

Discussion

Since the 2006 update (and this question), there has been another guideline update.

The below answer will be based on the most recent change, and thus is going to look different to the college answer from early 2007.

In summary:

Changes to BLS:

  • "signs of life" changed into "unresponsive and not breathing normally"
  • If unwilling to perform conventional CPR, public is encouraged to perform compression-only CPR
  • Pulse check has been downgraded - it is now only for health care professionals
  • "S" has been added into DRSABC - it stands for "send for help"
  • CPR now commences with chest compressions rather than rescue breaths

Changes to ALS:

  • Depth of compression increased to > 5 cm
  • Now, we charge the defibrillator while chest compressions continue
  • No longer are "stacked shocks" recommended (outside of "special circumstances")
  • When amiodarone is given after the third shock, the timing is now "at the time of CPR recommencement"
  • Atropine has been removed from the guidelines
  • Precordial thump is no longer recommended for VF - monitored pulseless VT only
  • Hyperoxia after ROSC is emphasised as a bad thing.

References

The ARC has a portion of their website dedicated to the past update information of their guidelines.

Specifically, one can review a summary of BLS changes and a summary of ALS changes.

 

The index of the new guidelines is available from the ARC website.

Question 28 - 2007, Paper 1

List the extracoporeal therapies used in the critically ill and outline the indications for their use.

College Answer

1) Dialytic techniques. 
Traditional indications used for acute renal failure, are concerns about fluid overload (actual or to facilitate nutritional support), hyperkalaemia or other uncontrolled electrolyte disorders, metabolic acidosis, hyponatraemia, uraemic symptoms or elevated urea (e.g. 30 mmoJIL).

2) Dialysis or haemoftltration (e.g. with charcoal filter) can be used to increase the clearance of toxic products from the circulation (e.g. lithium, theophylline, myoglobin). 

3) Newer related extracorporeal techniques have also been developed to support liver dysfunction. 

4) ECMO - Severe respiratory failure 

5) ECC02-Severe respiratory failure 

6) Extracorporeal ventricular assist device - Severe myocardial dysfunction 

7) Plasmapheresis/filtration-meningococal infection, Guilian Barre, ITP

Discussion

This question would benefit from a tabulated answer.

Extracorporal Therapies in the ICU and their Indications
Therapy Indications
Dialysis
  • Oliguria with volume overload
  • Oliguria is relative; urine output may be high and still inadequate in clearing the fluid.
  • Uremia with symptoms
  • Hyperkalemia ( K+ over 6.0)
  • Metabolic acidosis due to renal failure (pH < 7.2)
  • Removal of dialysable drugs/toxins
  • Control of electrolytes
  • Control of body temperature
Hemoperfusion
  •  There is severe life-threatening intoxication with substances which are not going to be well removed by the liver or kidneys.
  • There is an impairment of liver and kidneys, preventing clearance.
  • If a toxin is equally well cleared by hemodialysis and hemoperfusion, then hemodialysis is preferred, because it will also correct any underlying acid-base disturbance
ECMO
  • Cardiac arrest (in certain settings)
  • Failure to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Hypoxic respiratory failure
  • Hypercapneic respiratory failure
ECCO2R
  • Hypercapnic respiratory failure with adequate oxygenation
MARS
  • Fulminant hepatic failure with encephalopathy, awaiting transplant
Plasma exchange
  • HELLP syndrome
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • HIV-related neuropathy
  • Pemphigus
  • Coagulation inhibitors
  • DIC
  • Overwhelming sepsis syndromes eg meningococcaemia
  • Reye’s syndrome
  • Paraquat poisoning
  • A more complete summary of indications is available elsewhere
LVAD/RVAD
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Fulminant myocarditis
  • Failure to wean off bypass

References

Question 24 - 2007, Paper 2

Compare and contrast transthoracic and transoesophageal echocardiography in the evaluation of cardiac disease in the critically ill patient. (You may tabulate your answer)

College Answer

TTE

TOE

Time lag to diagnosis

Instantaneous

A certain degree of delay

Need for sedation

None

May need sedation

Invasive

No

Minimally invasive

Morbidity

None

Minimal

Mortality

None

Minimal

Image quality

Good/excellent in non-
vent, reduced in ventilated patients

Excellent in all patients

Infection control

Stricter infectious control
procedures

Cost

More expensive probes

Native and prosthetic
valve endocarditis

TOE is superior

Aortic dissection

TOE is superior

Aortic trauma

TOE is superior

LA appendage clot

TOE is superior

Pericardial effusion

Good

Good

Localised tamponade (post
surgery)

Occasionally useful

Very useful

Discussion

The recommendations for the use of TTE or TOE have been updated in 2003. The update statement, though the "summary" of a much larger statement, is in fact an unwieldy document many pages long. A much better summary of echosonography in the ICU is presented in a review article from 2008.  Thre massive 2007 Appropriateness Criteria for Transthoracic and Transesophageal Echocardiography statement was used to construct the suggested non-college answer below.

A Comparison of TOE and TTE in the Assessment of Cardiac Disease
Category TTE TOE
Equipment
  • Small scale devices available
  • Bedside apparatus ranges from cheap hand-held probes (sub-$10K ) to professional equipment (ranging $70K- $150K)
  • Probes are easily replaceable when they break, as their cost is small
  • There is no cheap bedside option
  • Bedside apparatus is portable but still large and expensive  (ranging $70K- $150K)
  • Expensive probes need to be carefully protected from such threats as patient's teeth
Time lag to diagnosis
  • Instant diagnosis
  • Slight delay
Need for sedation
  • Usually unnecessay
  • Frequently necessary
Invasiveness
  • Non-invasive
  • Minimally invasive
Absolute contraindications
  • None
  • Severe left-sided rib fractures could be viewed as a relative contraindication
     
  • Oral or oesophageal surgery, anastomosis
  • Oesophageal stricture or diverticulum
  • Severe coagulopathy could be viewed as a relative contraindication
Factors affecting image quality
  • Body habitus
  • Mechanical ventilation
  • Patient position
  • Exposure of chest wall (eg. severe burn, or open chest in cardiothoracic theatre)
  • Most of the time image quality is good; most important factor affecting it is the experience of the operator
Infection control
  • Probe needs to be disinfected with surface-acting disinfectant agents (similar to any other patient contact instrument); it is usually not exposed to patient body fluids.
  • It cannot be subjected to autoclaving.
  • Disposable sleeves are available.
     
  • The probe must be disinfected thoroughly in a manner similar to the disinfection of endoscopy probes, as it is exposed to patient body fluids.
  • Protective sleeves are inappropriate.
  • Most probe designs factor in the need to be subjected to automated cleaning, and tolerate high temperatures.
  • The usual probe turnaround time is 20 minutes under ideal circumstances
Mortality and morbidity
  • Essentially, a benign and consequence-free procedure.
  • The greatest risks are misinterpretation of data (leading to inappropriate management) and inaccurate findings (due to operator inexperience).
  • No formal consent process is usually required (verbal / implied consent is sufficient)
  • Each procedure has a small but non-zero risk of major complications, including oesophageal perforation, endotracheal tube dislodgement, and death.
  • The nasogastric tube is often in the way, and ends up being removed. It then needs to be reinserted, with attendent complications.
  • In the non-intubated patient, the use of sedation carries its own risks.
Focused assessment of the cardiac arrest patient
  • The subcostal view does not interfere with CPR, but is a sub-optimal view.
  • Information derived from peri-arrest TTE is frequently useful and tends to change the management
  • Some prognostic interest: patients with absent LV wall movement are highly unlikely to succeed at ROSC (only ~2.4% will go on to ROSC).
  • Also does not interfere with CPR, but offers much better quality of images.
  • Likely to be the only option in perioperative cardiac arrest
  • Same as TTE, changes management in arrest and can offer some prognostic information.
Assessment of ventricular function
  • TTE is a better modality for assessment of LV and RV function as it includes the true cardiac apex
  • Multiple window directions enhance the ability to assess flow with Doppler
  • The cardiac apex is poorly seen with TOE.
  • There are fewer windows, and Doppler assessment of flow is incomplete
Assessment of aortic dissection
  • Descending and thoracic aorta is either impossible or difficult to image.
  • TOE is the US modiality of choice for aortic dissection
Assessment of valve function
  • Valve function can be assessed to a high degree of accuracy provided image quality is satisfactory.
  • Small vegetations cannot be excluded
  • Valve function can be assessed to a high degree of accuracy
  • Valve images are of sufficiently high quality to appreciate small vegetations
  • This is the modality of choice for infective endocarditis
Assessment of septal defects
  • Grossly, large defects and intracardiac shunts can be appreciated, but their quantitative assessment usually cannot be carried out
  • Intracardiac shunts and septal defects are well imaged. This is the modality of choice for such pathology.
Identification of intracardiac thrombi
  • Large LA and LV thrombi can be identified; small thrombi cannot be excluded.
  • All sorts of intracardiac thrombi can be identified; particularly the left atrial appendage is well visualised. This is the modality of choice for pre-cardioversion assessment of embolic risk.

References

Cheitlin, Melvin D., et al. "ACC/AHA/ASE 2003 guideline update for the clinical application of echocardiography." A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines (ACC/AHA/ASE Committee to Update the 1997 Guidelines for the Clinical Application of Echocardiography). American College of Cardiology Foundation and American Heart Association (2003).

Roscoe, Andrew, and Tim Strang. "Echocardiography in intensive care."Continuing Education in Anaesthesia, Critical Care & Pain 8.2 (2008): 46-49.

Douglas, Pamela S., et al. "ACCF/ASE/ACEP/ASNC/SCAI/SCCT/SCMR 2007 Appropriateness Criteria for Transthoracic and Transesophageal Echocardiography⁎: A Report of the American College of Cardiology Foundation Quality Strategic Directions Committee Appropriateness Criteria Working Group, American Society of Echocardiography, American College of Emergency Physicians, American Society of Nuclear Cardiology, Society for Cardiovascular Angiography and Interventions, Society of Cardiovascular Computed Tomography, and the Society for ...." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 50.2 (2007): 187-204.

Question 13.1 - 2008, Paper 1

You are asked to assess a 78 year old non-smoker admitted  with progressive exertional breathlessness. On examination,  he has a respiratory rate of 28/min. BP 100/70 mm Hg. The JVP is elevated 8 cm above the sternal angle. The apical impulse is thrusting in nature and localized to the 6th left intercostal space, lateral to the mid-axillary line. On auscultation, there is an ejection systolic murmur, which is heard over the left second intercostal space and conducted to the root of the neck. There were bibasal crackles on auscultation of the lungs.

a) What is the likely diagnosis of his cardiovascular condition?

b) List 4 clinical signs which may indicate that the nature of his condition is severe.

College Answer

a)     What is the likely diagnosis of his cardiovascular condition?

Aortic stenosis

Mention of HOCM or subaortic stenosis ? 2.5 mark
Mention of any other valvular lesion should not score any marks for this question.

b) List 4 clinical signs which may indicate that the nature of his condition is severe.

  • Plateau pulse
  • Aortic thrill
  • S4
  • Paradoxical splitting of second heart sound
  • Length and the harshness of the murmur
  • LV failure – a late sign

Discussion

Talley and O'Connor have a fine list of signs, which one mgiht expect to see in severe aortic stenosis.

  • Delayed carotid upstroke
  • Diminished carotid pulse on palpation
  • Apical impulse sustained (pressure loaded)
  • Absent or decreased A2
  • S4 gallop
  • Late peaking murmur
  • Long murmur
  • Murmur radiates to the neck

References

Clinical Examination of the Critically Ill Patient, 3rd edition by L.I.G. Worthley - which can be ordered from our college here.

Clinical Examination: whatever edition, by Talley and O'Connor. Can be acquired any damn where.

Question 19 - 2008, Paper 1

Outline the information that may be useful in determining the prognosis of a comatose survivor of a cardiac arrest.

College Answer

Diagnosis of the underlying cause of the cardiac arrest ...
(eg drug overdose vs cerebral metastatic adencarcinoma) and any serious comorbidites that may be present.
•      Time to ROSC < 10 min
•      Bystander CPR
•      Rhythm VF better than asystole
•  Neurological status (assessed at 24-72 hours)
•   requires absence of sedation or neuromuscular blocking agents
•   Pupillary response to light – absent is poor prognostic sign
•   Best motor response – absent or extensor motor response is a poor prognostic
sign
•  Biochemical evidence of neurological damage
•   Neurone specific enolase
•   S-100 neuroprotein

•  Electrophysiological evidence of neurological damage
•   Somatosensory evoked potentials

•  Cardiac status
•   Sucessful revascularisation if STEMI is underlying cause
•   Ejection fraction on ECHO

Discussion

This question closely resembles several other questions from subsequent papers:

Question 4 from the second paper of 2013: "Describe the clinical signs and investigations available to predict poor neurological outcome in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest. Include in your answer the factors that may confound the interpretation of these signs and investigations. "

Question 14 from the first paper of 2011: "Outline the value of the following in determining prognosis for neurological recovery in an adult patient admitted to ICU, after successful cardiovascular resuscitation from an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest:  Peri-arrest data, Clinical examination, Neuro-imaging, Neurophysiology, Biomarkers"

In the answers to the above questions, elaborate tables display the information which is relevant in post-arrest prognostication, discuss its prognostic value, and digress upon the various confounding factors which might fuddle one's forecasts.

The AAN report referenced below is an excellent resource for all questions of this nature.

References

Question 26.2 - 2008, Paper 1

This is the ECG of a 74 year old man who had an out of hospital cardiac arrest.


Describe the ECG.

College Answer

1    Irregular rhythm right bundle branch block left posterior fascicular ( or right axis
deviation) block
2    Rhythm possibly junctional

Discussion

For a deeper discussion of RBBB and the fascicle blocks, I refer the gentle reader to LITFL

References

Question 26.3 - 2008, Paper 1

Examine the ECG shown below.

1.      Describe the ECG as shown.
2.      Which coronary artery territory may be involved in the pathophysiology of this case?

College Answer

1    Sinus rhythm of 92 bpm. ST elevation of >2mm in II, III AVF and V5,6 with reciprocal changes in V1 and AVR. Consistent with myocardial infarction .
2    Right coronary artery territory or LCx if dominant left system.

Discussion

The localisation of coronary artery territories on the ECG is discussed elsewhere.

To simplify revision, here they are:

localisation of coronary artery territories

References

Zimetbaum, Peter J., and Mark E. Josephson. "Use of the electrocardiogram in acute myocardial infarction." New England Journal of Medicine 348.10 (2003): 933-940.

Question 7.1 - 2008, Paper 2

List the classic cardiac auscultatory signs of atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus. What typical findings on a right heart catheterization will also support your diagnosis?   (You may tabulate your answer)

College Answer

ASD

VSD

PDA

Fixed split of second heart
sound

Harsh pansystolic murmur
confined to the left sternal edge

A continuous murmur
heard over the pulmonary area

Mid diastolic flow murmur
over tricuspid area if significant shunt

Mid diastolic flow murmur
over mitral area if significant shunt

Mid diastolic flow murmur
over mitral area if significant shunt

Step up in oxygen
saturation at atrial level

Step up in oxygen
saturation at ventricular level

Step up in oxygen
saturation at pulmonary artery level

Discussion

There really is no way to answer this question without having either memorised or having become freakishly familiar with the details of cardiological examination.

A summary for these physical examination findings exists elsewhere.

The "step up" findings in right heart catheterisation are self-explanatory once you think about it. They are all the features of "acyanotic" heart defects.

The atrial septal defect contributes oxygenated blood to the right atrium, and the "step-up" occurs there. The VSD contributes oxygenated blood to the ventricle with similar consequences. The PDA carries oxygenated blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, and again this change occurs.

Dexter et al first explored this in healthy patients in 1947; a good review article addresses his workand outlines what precisely an abnormal "step up" looks like (turns out it is about 5-7% difference in oxygen content - less than 1 % of such people would be free from septal defects).

References

Freed, MICHAEL D., OLLI S. Miettinen, and ALEXANDER S. Nadas. "Oximetric detection of intracardiac left-to-right shunts." British heart journal 42.6 (1979): 690.

Question 15.3 - 2008, Paper 2

Examine  the ECG provided below

a)  Describe the abnormalities on the ECG

b)  List 2 potential causes

College Answer

a)  Describe the abnormalities on the ECG
Tachycardia
Intraventricular conduction defect probably RBBB Widespread ST elevation

b)  List 2 potential causes
Acute myocardial infarction (extensive)
Maybe myopericarditis

Discussion

There is little to discuss. There are many potential causes for ST elevation, but fewer for ST elevation with bundle branch block. I can think of only the following:

  • Myocardial infarction
  • Cardiac contusion
  • Acute myocarditis
  • LV aneurysm
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Early repolarization (with elevated J point)
  • Left bundle branch block
  • Hypothermia with J point elevation (can be mistaken for ST elevation)
  • Brugada syndrome (characteristic ST changes can be mistaken for STEMI)

References

The above ECG was borrowed gratefully from the STEMI collection at LITFL. Unfortunately there is no tachycardia, but the spirit of the question is preserved I hope.

There is an excellent paper to help you generate differentials about ST segment changes: Wang, Kyuhyun, Richard W. Asinger, and Henry JL Marriott. "ST-segment elevation in conditions other than acute myocardial infarction." New England Journal of Medicine 349.22 (2003): 2128-2135.

 

 

Question 29.1 - 2008, Paper 2

Besides history and clinical examination, what investigations may help distinguish between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of pulmonary oedema in the critically ill patient?

College Answer

1) Measurement of PCWP and CI
2) Serum BNP
3) Echocardiography
4) PICCO

Discussion

Echocardiography is a straightforward answer, as is BNP.

PCWP and cardiac index are indirectly related to this answer- one can cave a patient with a noncardiogenic pulmonary oedama as well as a poor cardiac index; the inference that the oedema has occurred because of the poor cardiac index would be incorrect.

The PICCO is even more obscure. Yes, it gives to you the extravascular lung water, but this only tells you that there is water in the lungs (which you already knew).

However, some authors have asserted that thermodilution measurements of pulmonary permeability can differentiate pulmonary oedema from ARDS.

Causes of Acute Pulmonary Oedema
Cardiogenic Non-cardiogenic

Excessive LV afterload

  • Severe hypertension
  • Aortic stenosis
  • HOCM (LVOTO)

Excessive LV preload

  • Fluid overload
  • Rapid fluid bolus

Excessive left atrial afterload

  • Mitral stenosis
  • Mitral thrombosis
  • Mitral prolapse
  • Atrial myxoma

Poor contractility

  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Drug effect (eg. beta blockers)
  • Metabolic disease (eg. hypothyroidism)
  • Infectious causes (eg. myocarditis)

Ineffective contractility

  • Mitral regurgitation
  • Takotsubo cariomyopathy

Increased capillary permeability

  • ARDS; systemic inflammatory state
  • Reperfusion (eg. following relief of an embolic occlusion)
  • Reperfusion of transplant lung
  • Near drowning (surfactant loss)

Neurogenic pulmonary oedema

  • Intracranial haemorrhage
  • Seizures
  • Electroconvulsive therapy

Drug-induced pulmonary oedema

  • Opiate induced (eg. heroin overdose)
  • Salicylate overdose

Raised pulmonary arterial pressure

  • High altitude pulmonary oedema
  • Massive PE
  • Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease
  • Post pneumonectomy
  • Air embolism

Negative pressure pulmonary oedema

  • Airway obstruction
  • Re-expansion pulmonary oedema, eg. following the drainage of a particularly large pleural effusion
Investigations to Help Discriminate Between Cardiac and Non-Cardiac Causes of Acute Pulmonary Oedema
Investigation Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
History
  • Chest pain
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea or orthopnea
  • Worsening exercise tolerance
  • Pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration, high altitude, drug overdose, recent lung transplant, recent pleural effusion drainage, all the obvious stuff.
Examination
  • S3 gallop: suggests an elevated end-diastolic LV pressure; a highly specific finding with low sensitivity.
  • Mitral stenosis or regurgitation murmur
  • Raised JVP
  • Cool extremities
  • Low JVP
  • Warm vasodilated extremities
  • Vigorous strong pulses
ECG findings
  • Ischaemia
  • Heart block
  • Arrhythmia
  • Right ventricular strain, eg. as in PE
Troponin
  • Can confirm cardiac ischaemia
  • May be elevated in renal failure, sepsis, SAH, etc...
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
  • More than 100pg/ml suggests that CCF is contributing to the APO
  • Less than 100pg/ml in ED or 200pg/ml in ICU suggests that the oedema is non-cardiogenic (eg. it may be ARDS)
Chest Xray
  • Cardiac causes of APO usually have more perihilar infltrates. Classical "bat wing" appearance is rare in non-cardic pulmonary oedema
  • Cardiomegaly is a clue
  • One may be able to see engorged pulmonary veins.
  • Non-cardiac APO tends to feature peripheral lung infiltrates. However, all sorts of ARDS look the same on Xray.
  • In massive PE the oedema will be irregular (i.e. limited to areas which are still perfused) whereas the rest of the lung will be oligaemic.
Echocardiography
  • Gold standard for diagnosis of cardiac structural and functional disease, but does not rule out non-cardiac causes. It is possible to have both poor baseline LV function and acute pulmonary oedema of a totally non-cardiogenic cause. 
  • Massive PE and similar things can be found on TTE.
  • A normal TTE all ut excludes cardiac causes of APO.
Swan-Ganz catheter
  • PAWP is valuely related to LA filling pressure, and a PAWP over 18mmHg suggests either cardiogenic APO or volume overload.
  • A normal or increased cardiac output, combined with a normal PAWP, all but excludes cardiogenic causes of APO 

References

Karmpaliotis, Dimitri, et al. "Diagnostic and prognostic utility of brain natriuretic Peptide in subjects admitted to the ICU with hypoxic respiratory failure due to noncardiogenic and cardiogenic pulmonary edema." CHEST Journal 131.4 (2007): 964-971.

Monnet, Xavier, et al. "Assessing pulmonary permeability by transpulmonary thermodilution allows differentiation of hydrostatic pulmonary edema from ALI/ARDS." Intensive care medicine 33.3 (2007): 448-453.

Ware, Lorraine B., and Michael A. Matthay. "Acute pulmonary edema." New England Journal of Medicine 353.26 (2005): 2788-2796.
 

.

Question 29.2 - 2008, Paper 2

A 70 year old man is admitted with shortness of breath and respiratory failure to the intensive care unit. A systolic murmur is audible  on examination. A chest X- ray reveals upper lobe diversion of pulmonary veins.  A transthoracic echo reveals the following. (abnormal values marked with an asterix)

OBSERVATIONS:

TRICUSPID VALVE:                         Normal
PULMONIC VALVE:                        Normal
RIGHT VENTRICLE:                         Normal size and function
RIGHT ATRIUM/IVC:                       Normal
MITRAL VALVE:                              Normal

*LEFT  VENTRICULAR EVALUATION 
Normal LV size. Moderate to severe impairment of systolic function.  EF 25%. No regional wall motion abnormalities. Moderate LV hypertrophy.

*LEFT  ATRIUM:  Mildly enlarged.

*AORTIC VALVE:  Thickened and calcified, with reduced opening. No aortic regurgitation.

Aortic valve area

0.68cm2

(2-4)

Left ventricular outflow tract:    

Maximum velocity

0.55 m/s;

(0.8 – 1.2)

Velocity time integral (VTI)

8.58 cm;

Aortic valv 

Maximum velocity

2.93 m/s;

(<2.0)

Velocity time integral (VTI)

43 cm;

Max pressure gradient
Mean pressure gradient

34 mm Hg
18 mm Hg

(<16)
(<10)

Dimensionless severity index (DSI)              0.19

Based on the above information, what is the likely underlying diagnosis responsible for this patient’s symptoms? Comment on the severity of the underlying diagnosis and provide reasons for your answer.

College Answer

Severe aortic stenosis (2.0) with impaired LV systolic function. Reasons: Valve area less than 0.7 cm2 (1.5) and DSI less than 0.2.

Pressure gradients may be low in the presence of LV dysfunction

Discussion

This question closely resembles the Question 8.3 from the second paper of 2010.

References

Question 30 - 2008, Paper 2

A 55 year old man has been admitted to your unit with 60% burns involving his face, chest, upper and lower limbs and torso. He has had some debridement and grafting of his burn sites. Ten days after admission,  after return from theatre following a debridement, he is noted to be hypotensive  with a blood pressure of 85/50 mm Hg. Briefly outline the causes and the management of his hypotension.

College Answer

Possible causes

Investigation

1)  Ongoing fluid shifts and
evaporative fluid losses from raw surfaces
2)  Ongoing SIRS
3)  Bacteremia from operative stimulation. Sepsis – burn site, line sepsis, nosocomial sepsis, deep seated muscle sepsis, high risk of fungal sepsis, endocarditis
4)  Bleeding - from surgical and burn sites,
5)  Anaphylactic reactions to drugs
6)  Pneumothorax

Less likely
7)  Incidental PE (in hospital for 10 days)
8)  Myocardial dysfunction
9)  GI bleed from stress ulcers
10) Adrenal insufficiency described with burns.

1)  Clinical assessment of fluid
balance 
2)  Assessment of filling pressures
3)  Septic screen  - to include burn biopsies
4)  Hb
5)  ECG, troponin, Echo
6)  Screen for anaphylaxis – mast cell tryptase
7)  CTPA

Treatment

1)  Depends on cause
2)  Fluid bolus +/- inotropes – usually norad
3)  Line change if indicated
4)  Broad spectrum Gram positive and gram negative cover if sepsis is deemed likely.
+/- fungal cover
5)  PRBC as required
6)  Targeted therapy for PE /anaphylaxis

Discussion

One can easily see through the thin veneer of this burns history the college gives us. This is really just a boring question about the differential causes of shock.

Thus:

  • Artifactual shock
    • Art line inappropriately zeroed
    • Wrong size NIBP cuff
  • Technical error
    • CVC is extravasating vasopressors
    • Vasopressor infusion was improperly prepared
  • Obstructive shock
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Tension pneumothorax
    • Pulmonary embolism
  • Distributive shock
    • Septic shock - bacterial translocation from infected burns which have been disturbed
    • Anaphylactic shock - a reaction to antibiotics or anaesthetic agents
    • Propofol-related vasoplegia
  • Hypovolemic shock
    • Haemorrhage intraoperatively
    • Inadequate fluid resuscitation in theatre
  • Cardiogenic shock
    • Intraoperative MI
    • Cardiodepressant effect of drugs

An approach to investigation would thus consist of the following:

  • Examination of the cardiorespiratory system to exclude anahylaxis, cardiac tamponade, pneumothorax and obvious haemorrhage
  • ABG to assess the severity of the metabolic acidosis
  • FBC to look for haemorrhage
  • Mast cell tryptase
  • Septic screen
  • ECG to exclude perioperative MI
  • CXR to look for features of cardiac failure
  • TTE to exclude tamponade and to look for features of cardiac failure or right heart dilation
  • CTPA to exclude PE

References

Question 3.1 - 2009, paper 1

a.   List 3 abnormalities on this ECG

b.  Name 2 drugs which are contraindicated in this disorder

c.   Name 2 complications of this disorder

College Answer

a.   List 3 abnormalities on this ECG

°    Short PR

°    Delta wave

°    Wide QRS

°    J wave (candidates mentioning this also received credit)

°    Tall R wave in V1

b.  Name 2 drugs which are contraindicated in this disorder

°    Verapamil

°    Digoxin

c.   Name 2 complications of this disorder

°    VF arrest

°    Syncope

°    AF/tachyarrhythmias

Discussion

This is WPW. The short PR, long QRS and delta waves all suggest that an accessory conduction pathway is present. The J wave is a bit of a red herring here, and is certainly not part of the syndrome; its presence can be a normal variant, which is what I think is happening here (unless this patient was cooled).

ECG features of WPS are:

  • The PR interval is short (less than 0.12 seconds)
  • There is a delta wave (a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex)
  • Wide QRS (because the delta wave widens it)
  • ST Segment and T wave discordant changes: T waves point in the opposite direction to the QRS.
  • Pseudo-Q waves: negatively deflected delta waves in the inferior / anterior leads
  • prominent R wave in V1-3 (mimicking posterior infarction).
  • Ideally, this sort of ECG should come with a history of syncopal episodes.
  • Characteristic electrophysiology findings of an  accessory pathway (Bundle of Kent) are desirable but non essential.

Complications of WPW include:

  • SVT, which comes in two flavours. if the complexes are narrow, its orthodromic. If they are wide and with delta-waves, its antidromic. Does that really matter? Probably not.
  • AF  is disturbingly common in WPW- 10 to 30% of patients will have it at some point. Having AVRT predisposes one to AF in this situation because the reentry circuit via the accessory pathway can cause the atria to contract quite randomly (after all, the accessory pathway is not a serious part of the conducting system, and it doesn’t link into any sort of conduction pathways- its just going to excite any old patch of atrium). The ECG will throw you off. The conduction rate is roughly 1:1.5; the QRS rate is about 180 to 200. It is hard to tell that its irregularly irregular. The QRS complexes will be a mixture of pre-excited delta-waving ones, and normal-looking narrow ones. If the accessory pathway has a short refractory period, it will conduct more often and therefore there will be more broad complexes than narrow ones. The shorter the refractory period of the accessory pathway, the broader the QRS. And the broader the QRS, the greater the chance of this thing degenerating into ventricular fibrillation.
  • Atrial flutter can also conduct via the bundle of Kent. There will be 1:1 conduction. Ventricular rate will approach 300. Because this is an antidromic way of conducting impulses, the QRS complexes will be broad and there will be delta waves. Unlike AF, the rate runs with a metronome-like regularity. The patient will likely look dead.
  • Ventricular fibrillation is a common cause of sudden cardiac death among the WPWs. So, in AF with WPW conduction, the rate of ventricular contraction is increased, and the regularity is decreased. This fractionates the wavefront of ventricular depolarization. Soon enough, there are numerous wavefronts all moving around the ventricle. This is ventricular fibrillation. If you block the AV node, occasionally the accessory pathway will launch the ventricles into this. It’s a known, and extremely uncommon, complication of adenosine use in WPW.
  • Syncope and sudden cardiac death are the natural histories of these arrhythmias in WPW, because they are frequently too fast to be perfusing rhythms. The surviving sufferer is typically saved by their youth, as they may be better able to tolerate hummingbird-like heart rate for sustained periods.

What can we say about the safety of AV nodal blockers in WPW?

  • Theoretically, AV nodal blockers should be safe in WPW-associated SVT, be it antidromic or orthodromic. If one thinks for a minute about the epidemiology of SVT, one will come to the conclusion that a large proportion of SVT is in fact caused by WPW or some other sort of preexcitaton syndrome, which is usually not known at the time of their first presentation. Many of these people get adenosine, which then reveals their delta waves to the horrified emergency personnel. Most of them do not die of VF. On the basis of this, we may conclude that it is probably reasonably safe.
  • Practically, antidromic SVT in WPW may be difficult to discriminate from AF or VT. Broad complexes and 300+ heart rates could be anything in WPW. Sure, it could be supraventricular, and respond to adenosine. Or it could be AF, and turn into VF. Or it could be VT, which will not benefit from an AV nodal blocker, in which case you have wasted precious time.

On this basis, the authorities tend to recommend the use of Class I or Class III agents instead of AV nodal blockers. The model answer to Question 3.1 from the first paper of 2009 lists procainamide and amiodarone as first-line agents, whereas digoxin and verapamil are contraindicated. Digoxin decreases the refractory period of the accessory pathway and verapimil tends to accelerate the ventricular response to AF by a similar mechanism. Since 2009, public opinion has also drifted away from amiodarone. As an acute infusion it is basically a beta-blocker with some AV nodal specificity. It is therefore the wrong drug for acute management of WPW SVT; or rather, it will probably be safe in the narrow-complex-obviously-orthodromic population, with the aforementioned caveats. In the long term, it becomes more useful, as its Class III and Class I effects begin to develop, slowing conduction down the accessory pathway.

References

Question 3.2 - 2009, paper 1

You are provided with a report of an echocardiogram of a patient in the ICU.

INDICATIONS/REASON FOR ECHOCARDIOGRAM:

  • Hypotension soon after admission to ICU following prosthetic aortic valve replacement for aortic stenosis . BP 70/30 mm Hg (mean 43 mm Hg). Study performed on adrenalin 10 mcg/min.

LEFT VENTRICULAR EVALUATION

  • Small LV cavity size.
  • Normal systolic function (EF 60%).
  • No regional wall motion abnormalities. E′ = 4 cm/s.
  • Moderate to severe concentric LV hypertrophy.
  • Flow acceleration noted in LVOT on colour Doppler.

LEFT ATRIUM

  • Mildly enlarged. LA area 26 cm2

RIGHT VENTRICLE

  • Normal size and systolic function

RIGHT ATRIUM/IVC Normal.

AORTIC ROOT Normal

MITRAL VALVE

  • Structurally normal mitral valve;
  • Systolic anterior motion of the valve leaflets.  
  • Moderate mitral regurgitation.
  • E-wave 0.8 m/s; A-wave 0.5 m/s; Deceleration time 196 ms

AORTIC VALVE

  • Prosthetic aortic valve is well seated. Trivial paravalvular regurgitation.

LVOT:

  • Max vel 5.0 m/s; Mean vel 3.5 m/s;
  • Max pressure gradient 100 mm Hg;
  • Mean pressure gradient 49 mm Hg

AV:      Max vel 5.1 m/s; Mean vel 3.7 m/s;

  • Max pressure gradient 104 mm Hg; Mean pressure gradient 55 mm Hg

TRICUSPID VALVE

  • Normal tricuspid valve. E-wave 0.3 m/s; Mild regurgitation; TR vel 2.0 m/s

PULMONIC VALVE

  • Normal pulmonic valve

a)  What is the cause of this patient’s  hypotension?   Justify your answer.

b)  List 4 principles of management of this patient’s  hypotension based on the report. (Abnormal values are shown in bold)

College Answer

1.  What is the cause of this patient’s hypotension? Justify your answer

°     Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction.

°     Gradient across LVOT and not across valve

°     SAM

2.  List 4 principles of management of this patient’s hypotension based on the report.

°     Stop adrenalin

°     Volume load

°     Beta blockers to slow the heart rate and reduce contractility

°     Vasoconstrictor without inotropic effect (eg phenylephrine)

Discussion

Success in answering this question relies on the candidate having sufficient familiarity with TTE reports to be able to rapidly skim through the data, identifying only the abnormal findings.

Armed with a detailed understanding of normal TTE measurements, one can immediately pick up on the systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve leaflets. This feature is present in a few other conditions, but combined with the reported LV hypertrophy one begins to think about dynamic LV outflow tract obstruction. This is confirmed by the LVOT peak pressure gradient of over 100mmHg (whereas anything over 30mmHg is defined as LVOT obstruction).

Now, the cause of the hypotension becmes clear (the patient is on 10mcg/min of adrenaline).

Thus, stopping adrenaline is the first step to recovery of normal cardiac output.

Adequate preload and a nice slow heart rate with decreased contractility is the key. Even with the beta-blockers decreasing contractility, the hypertrophied LV will be able to generate a satisfactory stroke volume - provided it does not block its own outflow tract. The idea is to also increase the duration of diastole for as long as possible. Lastly, a high afterload will likely be required - not only to decrease the LVOT-AV gradient, but to increase the diastolic pressure. A higher than average diastolic pressure will be required to perfuse the subendocardium in a hugely hypertrophied left ventricle. The agents to use in this setting would be phenylephrine, vaasopressin or metaraminol - as they have absolutely no beta-1 inotropic effect.

In summary, the management of HOCM in cardiogenic shock consists of

  • Ceasing positive inotropes
  • Starting some negative inotropes
  • Ensuring a slow rate
  • Maintaining a sinus rhythm
  • Increasing preload
  • Inreasing afterload and diastolic pressure

References

Walker, Christopher M., et al. "Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve."Journal of thoracic imaging 27.4 (2012): W87.

Williams, L. K., M. P. Frenneaux, and R. P. Steeds. "Echocardiography in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy diagnosis, prognosis, and role in management."European Journal of Echocardiography 10.8 (2009): iii9-iii14.

Fraser, J., et al. "Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in critically ill patients." Critical Care and Resuscitation 4.3 (2002): 170.

Sahoo, Rajendra K., et al. "Perioperative anesthetic management of patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy for noncardiac surgery: A case series."Annals of cardiac anaesthesia 13.3 (2010).

Question 24.2 - 2009, paper 1

List 4 clinical signs on cardiovascular examination which will support the diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension

College Answer

°     Prominent ‘a’ wave

°     Parasternal lift

°     Palpable P2

°     Loud P2

°     Features of tricuspid regurgitation

Discussion

The signs of pulmonary hypertension are mainly indirect.

  • The split loud P2 is the only direct sign - it is the sound of elevated PA pressur slamming the pulmonic valve shut at the end of systole.
  • If the P2 is palpable, the PA pressure is truly uncontrollably high

The rest are all features of right heart failure.

  • Parasternal heave is a sign of RV hypertrophy
  • a prominent "a" wave is the wave of right atrial contraction, reflected from either a stenotic tricuspid valve or a stiff non-compliant right ventricle. This also suggests that the RV is hypertrophied.
  • Features of tricuspid regurgitation suggest that the RV is also dilated, and possibly decompensating.

References

UpToDate: Clinical features and diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension in adults

SLEEPER, JULIAN C., EDWARD S. ORGAIN, and HENRY D. MCINTOSH. "Primary Pulmonary Hypertension Review of Clinical Features and Pathologic Physiology with a Report of Pulmonary Hemodynamics Derived from Repeated Catheterization." Circulation 26.6 (1962): 1358-1369.

(this is a nice old-school article witrh a discussion of several cases of severe pulmonary hypertension, and its various clinical features)

 

Question 24.6 - 2009, paper 1

List 3 causes of a mid-diastolic  murmur over the apex

College Answer

°     Mitral stenosis

°     Severe aortic regurgitation – Autin Flint murmur

°     Severe mitral regurgitation

°     Significant left to right shunt – VSD, PDA

°     Atrial myxoma

°     Carey-Coombs murmur

Discussion

This is a repeat question.

For some reason the college love their mid-diastolic apical murmurs.

Like the identical Question 3.2 from 2010(1), but unlike the very similar Question 26.3 from 2011(2), this specifically asks for MID-diastolic murmurs.

References

Clinical Examination of the Critically Ill Patient, 3rd edition by L.I.G. Worthley - which can be ordered from our college here.

Clinical Examination: whatever edition, by Talley and O'Connor. Can be acquired any damn where

Question 3.2 - 2009, Paper 2

A 65 year old man is admitted to your ICU following emergency percutaneous coronary stenting after an anterior STEMI complicated  by cardiogenic shock.

a) Comment  on the arterial waveform and describe your reasoning.

b) What are the physiologic consequences of this?

College Answer

a) Comment  on the arterial waveform and describe your reasoning.

Arterial waveform from IABP
Early inflation of balloon (augmentation occurs before dicrotic notch) Early deflation –

b) What are the physiologic consequences of this?

Incr LV wall stress, incr myocardial 02 consumption, incr LVEDV & LVEDP, worsening of mitral regurgitation, worsening of pulmonary oedema.

Discussion

a) is straightforward. It is a pattern recognition question.

Details of IABP waveform analysis are discussed elsewhere.

b) is somewhat more tricky, but the answer can be arrived at by process of logic rather than brute memory.

The early diastolic inflation increases the afterload of the contracting ventricle, which causes it to work harder. Hence the increased O2 consumption.LV wall stress is also increased, which decreases subendocardial perfusion. End-diastolic LV pressure is increased, which increases mitral regurgitation. The failure of systolic augmentation is more of a "loss-of-benefit" father than a "gain-of-harm".

References

Krishna, Murli, and Kai Zacharowski. "Principles of intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation." Continuing Education in Anaesthesia, Critical Care & Pain9.1 (2009): 24-28.

 

Question 7.1 - 2009, Paper 2

a)           What types of ECMO (extracorporeal membrane oxygenation) are available and what are their indications?

b)         List three (3) complications of ECMO.

College Answer

a)           What types of ECMO (extracorporeal membrane oxygenation) are available and what are their indications?

Veno-Arterial: Cardiogenic shock
Veno-Venous; Respiratory failure

b)         List three (3) complications of ECMO.

Bleeding, thromboembolism, infection, trauma to vesels

Discussion

This question closely resembles Question 11 from the 2nd paper of 2010.

Instead of repeating the list of indications and complications, I will instead link to summaries of ECMO topics I had prepared earlier:

 

References

Question 10.2 - 2009, Paper 2

This is the preoperative ECG of a patient.  There has been no recent chest pain or enzyme rise. What are the prominent features of this ECG? (Photo supplied on the next page)

What is the most likely diagnosis based on the ECG?

College Answer

SR at 75/min, normal axis, LVH, Qwaves in Vl-V3, ST elevation antleads (Vl-V4), inv T I, flattened T waves V4-V6)


LV aneurysm, old ant MI +1- new silent MI???

Discussion

My hat is off to the college for providing the exam ECG for future generations of trainees.

The definition of LV aneurysm is persisting ST elevation after an MI. We know that the patient has no current MI (the college tells us so). And we know that a previous MI took place (just look at those Q waves). The ECG changes are characteristic.

 

References

Rosenberg, Benjamin, and William J. Messinger. "The electrocardiogram in ventricular aneurysm.American heart journal 37.2 (1949): 267-277.

Nordenfelt, O. L. O. F. "The electrocardiogram in chronic aneurysm of the heart." Acta med. scandinav 102 (1939): 101.

 

 

Question 12.1 - 2009, Paper 2

List 3 causes of an irregularly irregular pulse.

College Answer

1. AF
2. Multiple VEs
3. Atrial flutter with varying block

Discussion

There is nothing to discuss. This is easy marks. Multifocal atrial tachycardia is another reasonable alternative. A reader has pointed out (thank you Vinay) that Mobitz Type II 2nd degree AV block is could also be listed here; because it is also irregular, but is it irregularly irregular? The reader is left to consider what they mean by this statement.

 

References

Question 17 - 2009, Paper 2

Outline the advantages and limitations of the various therapeutic options available for the treatment of right ventricular dysfunction.

College Answer

Therapy

Advantages

Disadvantages

Volume

Effective, as RV needs a
higher filling pressure. A PA catheter may be useful in guiding volume therapy.

Determination of preload
is problematic, RA pressure may be high in chronic right heart failure and may not be a predictor of volume response. Functional parameters of volume responsiveness not useful in right heart failure

Inotropes and vasopressors

-May be of benefit in RV
infarction where they may increase coronary perfusion pressure
- Some suggestion that levosimendan may improve RV afterload in ARDS

No large scale published
data on any specific inotrope or pressor in isolated RV failure

Afterload manipulation
- Control of hypoxia and hypercapnia and acidosis

reduce PA pressures

Optimal target levels unclear.

Prostaglandins

Reduce pulmonary
pressures

May cause systemic
hypotension, flushing

NO

Improves VQ matching,
improves oxygenation

Met Hb, platelet
dysfunction, requires special delivery systems, not shown to improve mortality

Bosentan

Reduce pulmonary
pressures

No large scale data

Phosphodiesterase
inhibitors - sildefanil

Reduce pulmonary
pressures

No large scale data

Pacing to improve A-V
synchrony

Improves preload

Mechanical ventilation

May improve oxygenation
and CO2 transfer and may reduce pulmonary hypertension

Deleterious effects of
IPPV

Discussion

This paper was issued to candidates late in 2009. A pity, because an excellent article on this topic came out in Critical Care in 2010.

I will summarise the suggestions made therein.

Volume management: a weak recommendation to closely monitor the effects of fluid challenge (seeing as conventional methods of assessing fluid responsiveness are quite useless in RV failure)

Afterload management: a weak recommendation to use noradrenaline and vasopressin, because they will only affect pulmonary arteries in very high doses.

Contractility enhancement: milrinone earns a strong promotion, but dobutamine and levosimendan only merit a lukewarm recommendation for lack of good quality evidence.

Afterload reduction: the authors strongly suggest that inhaled pulmonary vasodilators are used, rather than the IV forms. Inhaled NO and prostaglandin are strongly promoted, but oral sildenafil only gets a weak recommendation.

Bosentan and pacing are not mentioned. Mechanical ventilation is promoted as a means of avoiding atelectasis and hypoxic vasoconstriction.

 

References

Question 3.2 - 2010, Paper 1

List 4 causes of a mid diastolic murmur over the apex.

College Answer

Mitral stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Left to right shunts – VSD or a PDA 
Severe MR
Acute rheumatic fever

Discussion

Unlike the very similar question 26.3 from the second 2011 paper, this specifically asks for MID-diastolic murmurs.

Interestingly, this college answer is quite differently worded.

Instead of naming the eponymous Carey Coombs murmur of mitral incompetence in acute rheumatic fever, they just call it "acute rheumatic fever".

In any case, its essentially the same question. Candidates will do well to make themselves intimately familiar with murmurs, where they arise, and at which stage of the cardiac cycle one can expect to hear them.

References

Clinical Examination of the Critically Ill Patient, 3rd edition by L.I.G. Worthley - which can be ordered from our college here.

Clinical Examination: whatever edition, by Talley and O'Connor. Can be acquired any damn where

Question 15 - 2010, Paper 1

Chest  compression  only  CPR  should  replace  the  current  guidelines  on  CPR. Critically evaluate this statement.

College Answer

Reasons supporting the statement

Physiological:
a) In cardiac arrest heart dilates acutely. Decompression  of the heart occurs with good compressions
b) Ventilation can lead to decreased venous return
c) Passive ventilation still occurs with compression only CPR
d)  Gasping  can  provide  adequate  ventilation  and  in  presence  of  a  partial  airway obstruction may lead to increased venous return

Logistic reasons:

a) Reluctance  to perform  mouth  to mouth  by rescuers  therefore  some  people  do not attempt CPR.
b) Interruption to compressions therefore limiting their effectiveness

c) Easier to teach compression only CPR.
d) Out of hospital arrests it will minimise time to hospital.

e) Useful particularly in the setting of a single rescuer

Studies:

Mostly observational or animal. Some RCT
No difference in outcome using compression only versus standard CPRs in most studies
Evidence of value of good compressions

Against:

Most studies are observational.
Reported survival is no better with compression only therefore why change.
Data for most studies are prior to the change in recommendation   to 30:2 RATIO Ventilation is important for many arrests EG drowning/children/in hospital arrests ARC not recommend as standard practice

Present position: 
Not standard currently. Wait further studies. It can be used if rescuer is reluctant to use mouth to mouth

Discussion

This discussion is written in late 2014, with the benefit of four ensuing years of research and policy change.

Introduction

  • Compression-only CPR dispenses with recommendation to interrupt CPR for breaths.

Rationale

  • In cardiac arrest, ardiac output is the rate-limiting step of oxygen delivery
  • Compressions create enough passive circulation for adequate gas mixing to occur
  • Breath pauses in compressions may be counterproductive (as they allow cardiac output to decrease)
  • Reluctance to provide mouth-to-mouth may discourage all CPR attempts in lay rescuers

Advantages

  • Easier to teach
  • Easier to perform as a single rescuer
  • Definitely better than no CPR
  • May encourage grossed-out lay rescuers to provide some CPR, rather than no CPR
  • Uninterrupted compressions may be of better quality

Disadvantages

  • Supporting data is mainly from animal studies
  • Positive pressure ventilation may be essential in drowning, pulmonary oedema, airway obstruction, etc.

Evidence

  • In 2007, two observational studies published in Circulation (Iwami, Taku, et al. and Bohm, Katarina, et al.) did not find any survival benefit (or if you rather, confirmed equivalent efficacy) for compression-only CPR.
  • A 2010 RCT from NEJM compared the two strategies and again found no mortality difference.
  • A larger observational study published in 2011 found some difference, favouring conventional CPR.
  • A 2014 meta-analysis confirmed that there is no difference in mortality between conventional and compression-only CPR, but admitted that the issue "is unclear for the patients with noncardiac cause of arrest and with long periods of untreated arrest."

Current status of recommendations

  • The ARC still recommends a 30:2 compression-ventilation ratio"The ARC has extensively reviewed the recently published evidence and does not consider it to be of sufficient magnitude to warrant a change in the current guidelines"
  • The ARC also recommends you provide compression-only CPR if you are for some reason unwilling to provide proper CPR.

References

Question 16 - 2010, Paper 1

List the possible reasons why a patient with septic shock from infected pancreatitis may have ongoing hypotension despite intravenous fluid therapy, antibiotics and escalating inotrope requirement.

College Answer

Primary problem not fixed 
•    Untreated focus of infection/ inadequate  primary source control eg pancreatic abscess, infected pseudocyst
•    New  sepstic  site  eg  central  line/  hospital  acquired  pneumonia  /cholecystitis, urinary tract

Systematic Approach 
“hypovolaemic/ obstructive/ cardiac/ distributive +/- endocrine

•    Hypovolaemia  or hidden  bleeding     eg. From surgical  site/ peptic ulcer, “third space” losses (eg ascites from peritonitis)

•    Undiagnosed  or new     “obstructive  shock” :Tension pneumothorax/  Pericardial effusion/gas trapping (auto PEEP)/ pleural effusions/ pulmonary emboli

•    Severe Intra abdominal hypertension

•    Dysrhythmia eg SVT, junctional rhythm etc
•    New myocardial ischaemia
•    New/ undiagnosed cardiac valve pathology

•    Severe adrenal/ pituitary/thyroid dysfunction.
•    Drug reaction/ anaphylaxis
•    Vitamin deficiency (B1)
•    Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypophosphataemia  and hypocalcaemia (the latter particularly with pancreatitis)

Technical

•    CVL fallen out or not in a central vein / no pressors in the infusion bag
•    Measurement   error  –  eg  arterial  line  not  zeroed/under   or  over  damped, transducer height, wrong NIBP cuff size  etc

Miscellaneous

•    Radial/ central arterial monitoring discrepancy with severe vasoconstriction
•    Upper limb vascular disease (radial arterial line) or obstruction (eg dissection or aorto-occlusive disease: femoral arterial line)
•    Anti hypertensive drugs taken as part of patients usual medications

Discussion

This question is identical to Question 17 from the second paper of 2013.

References

Question 18.1 - 2010, Paper 1

A previously fit and well 24 year old man sustained an isolated C5-C6 spinal injury following  a  diving  accident  resulting  in  a  tetraplegia.  The  spinal  fracture  was surgically fixed the following day and the patient was extubated on Day 6 of his ICU admission. Within 4 hours of extubation, the patient developed respiratory distress requiring urgent rapid sequence induction and reintubation. The patient sustained a cardiac arrest soon after intubation.

18.1.   List five (5) likely causes of cardiac arrest in this patient.

College Answer

•    Oesophageal intubation
•    Hypoxic cardiac arrest (unrelated to oesophageal intubation due to delayed or unanticipated difficulty with intubation)
•    Suxamethonium induced hyperkalemia
•    Incidental PE
•    Autonomic dysfunction from the spinal injury.
•    Tension pneumothorax
•     Anaphylaxis

Discussion

This question relies on the candidate being able to generate a list of differential causes for cardiac arrest.

A good systematic framework for this is the "Four Hs and four Ts" mnemonic:

  • Hypoxia (thus, oesophageal intubation or delayed oxygenation)
  • Hypovolemia (thus, cardiovascular collapse due to vasodilation by an induction agent like propofol, or due to the autonomic dysfunction of spinal cord injury)
  • Hyper/hypokalemia (thus, the effects of suxamethonium)
  • Hyper/hypothermia (probably irrelevant in this case)
  • Tension pneumothorax (due to overvigorous bag-mask ventilation, or due to tracheobronchial disruption by violent use of the bougie)
  • Tamponade (unlikely in this setting)
  • Toxins (eg. anaphylactic reaction to induction agents)
  • Thrombus (eg. the PE which the college for some reason offer as a valid differential)

References

Question 18.2 - 2010, Paper 1

A previously fit and well 24 year old man sustained an isolated C5-C6 spinal injury following  a  diving  accident  resulting  in  a  tetraplegia.  The  spinal  fracture  was surgically fixed the following day and the patient was extubated on Day 6 of his ICU admission. Within 4 hours of extubation, the patient developed respiratory distress requiring urgent rapid sequence induction and reintubation. The patient sustained a cardiac arrest soon after intubation.

18.2.   Outline how you would determine the cause of the cardiac arrest.

College Answer

•     Capnograph to check tube position and reintubate if not in the right position
•     Urgent serum K
•      ECG
•      CTPA
•      Echo
•     CXray

Discussion

A systematic approach to this question would resemble the following:

A) confirm ETT position with capnography

B) ABG to assess adequacy of oxygenation

...and CXR to rule out pneumothorax

C) ECG to assess cardiac causes (eg. STEMI)

... and TTE to assess for presence of cardiac tamponade, and to evaluate chamber filling (thus investigating hypovolemia)

D) BSL to assess blood glucose

E) ABG to assess serum potassium levels

CTPA is mentioned because PE is considered as a differential for this cardiac arrest in the college answer to the first part of this three-part question.

References

Question 5.3 - 2010, Paper 2

On palpation of the arterial pulse, a double peak was noted with each cardiac cycle.  List 4 conditions/situations  which can produce this phenomenon.

College Answer

On palpation of the arterial pulse, a double peak was noted with each cardiac cycle.  List 4 conditions/situations  which can produce this phenomenon.

•    AS + AR
•    Severe AR
•     HOCM
•     IABP

Discussion

This is a phenomenon known as pulsus bisferiens. The typical cause for it is the combination of aortic stenosis and regurgitation. The four differentials listed above are the classical ones which one may find in any textbook (or in Wikipedia for that matter). The below-referenced article is from 1957, before balloon pumps, but it covers the topic well. The article from 1899 is even cooler, but perhaps less relevant in modern critical care.

References

Talley and O'Connor, any edition

Fleming, Peter R. "The mechanism of the pulsus bisferiens." British heart journal 19.4 (1957): 519.

Broadbent, Walter. "Pulsus bisferiens." British medical journal 1.1985 (1899): 75.

 

Question 5.4 - 2010, Paper 2

List the classic clinical  findings  on praecordial  examination  in a patient with 
Tetralogy of Fallot.

College Answer

List the classic clinical  findings  on praecordial  examination  in a patient with 
Tetralogy of Fallot.

•     ESM or PSM
•     Right ventricular heave
•     A loud single second sound

Discussion

Tetralogy of Fallot has a constellation of physical examination findings which the savvy candidate will have to memorise, unless they are constantly dealing with ToF patients.

Basically, the pathology is a sort of pulmonic stenosis, a VSD and RV hypertrophy.

The right ventricular heave is to be expected with RVH.

The ejection systolic murmur in the parasternal region may be either aortic or pulmonic in origin, but most typically is due to RVOT obstruction by the hypertrophied walls. It has a harsh crescendo-decrescendo quality, and tends to diminish as the contractility increases (because as the RV works harder, more blood is shunted to the left venticle across the VSD, and less blood travels via the RVOT thus generating less noise).

The loud second heart sound will be single because the stenosed pulmonic valve does not produce enough noise as it closes.

References

A little history about the Blalock-Taussig shunt...

UpToDate has a good summary: Pathophysiology, clinical features, and diagnosis of tetralogy of Fallot; of course you have to pay for it.

There is an old article which details the diagnostic features in ToF. As it pre-dates TTE, the focus is on physical examination.
MCCORD, MALCOM C., J. A. C. K. VAN ELK, and S. GILBERT BLOUNT. "Tetralogy of Fallot Clinical and Hemodynamic Spectrum of Combined Pulmonary Stenosis and Ventricular Septal Defect." Circulation 16.5 (1957): 736-749.

It would be rude not to reference Arthur Fallot himself. 
Fallot, Dr Arthur. Contribution à l'anatomie pathologique de la maladie bleue (cyanose cardiaque), par le Dr. A. Fallot,... Barlatier-Feissat, 1888.

Question 8.1 - 2010, Paper 2

You are called to a cardiac arrest. The following rhythm was evident on your arrival and the patient was pulseless.

Image provided in examination paper

ECG1.jpg

a)         List 5 causes of this presentation

College Answer

This is PEA
•    Tension pneumothorax
•     Tamponade
•    PE
•     Hypovolemia
•     Hypothermia

Discussion

It is difficult to justify a prolonged discussion for something like this.

The image I have provided is from LITFL, and demonstrates hypothermia with a slow junctional rhythm, but really any sort of organised electrical activity would have sufficed.

References

Question 8.3 - 2010, Paper 2

A 70 year old man is admitted with shortness of breath and respiratory failure to the intensive care unit. A systolic murmur is audible on examination. A chest X-Ray reveals upper lobe diversion of pulmonary veins. A transthoracic  echo reveals the following (abnormal values marked with an asterisk).

OBSERVATIONS:

TRICUSPID VALVE:               Normal 
PULMONIC VALVE:               Normal 
RIGHT VENTRICLE:              Normal size and function 
RIGHT ATRIUM / IVC:          Normal 
MITRAL VALVE:                    Normal

*LEFT VENTRICULAR EVALUATION: 
Normal LV size. Moderate to severe impairment of systolic function. EF 25%. No regional wall motion abnormalities. Moderate LV hypertrophy.

*LEFT ATRIUM: Mildly enlarged.

*AORTIC VALVE:  Thickened and calcified, with reduced opening. No aortic regurgitation.

Aortic valve area

Left ventricular outflow tract:

0.68cm2

0.55 m/s; 

(2 – 4)

(0.8 – 1.2)

Maximum velocity 
Velocity time integral (VTI)

8.58 cm;

Aortic valve     Maximum velocity

2.93 m/s;

(<2.0)

Velocity time integral (VTI)

43 cm;

Max pressure gradient 

Mean pressure gradient

34 mm Hg 

18 mm Hg

(<16) 

(<10)

Dimensionless severity index (DSI)

0.19

a)     Based on the above information, what is the likely underlying diagnosis responsible for this patient’s symptoms?  Comment on the severity of the underlying diagnosis and provide reasons for your answer.

College Answer

Severe aortic stenosis  with impaired LV systolic function. Reasons: Valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and DSI less than 0.2.

Pressure gradients may be low in the presence of LV dysfunction

Discussion

The aortic valve area places this person into the "critical stenosis" category, unless they are tiny. The critical stenosis threshold is 0.5cm/m2.

The impairment of LV systolic function is evident from the history of SOB, as well as from the Xray findings. This person has heart failure. The man pressure gradient for the LVOT is actually only 18mmHg, which suggests that the poor bewildered ventricle cannot compensate for the narrowed valve, and can no longer generate sufficient pressure to effectively push blood into the systemic circulation. This is what the college means when they say "gradients may be low in the presence of LV dysfunction"; the implication is that the severity of stenosis is underestimated because the LV cannot produce a sufficiently powerful ejection jet for the echosonographer to measure.

This sort of low-gradient aortic stenosis is discussed with due diligence in an article from 2011.

References

Awtry, Eric, and Ravin Davidoff. "Low-flow/low-gradient aortic stenosis."Circulation 124.23 (2011): e739-e741.

 

 

Question 11 - 2010, Paper 2

Outline   the  role  of  ECMO   (Extracorporeal   membrane   oxygenation)   as  a supportive strategy in the critically ill.

College Answer

Indications:

ECMO is indicated as a supportive strategy for patients (adults, children and neonates) with potentially reversible acute severe heart or lung failure with a high mortality risk despite conventional therapy.

Types: Veno-venous or veno-arterial

Evidence for use of ECMO

•    ECMO has proven benefit as a supportive strategy in neonates with cardiorespiratory failure. The International Registry reports 75% survival to discharge for neonates on ECMO.

•    Recent studies have shown a benefit for the use of ECMO in adult respiratory failure but the evidence for its use in cardiac failure is still poor. CESAR Trial from the UK compared ECMO and conventional ventilation for severe acute respiratory failure in
160 patients with improved 6 month survival in the ECMO group (63% versus 47%). The Australasian experience of the 2009 influenza A (HINI) pandemic (ANZ ECMO Influenza Investigators) reported 68 patients who received ECMO with 21% mortality. All these patients met inclusion criteria for the CESAR trial.

•    ECMO also used as a rescue strategy for cardiac arrest (ECPR).
•    Several centres world-wide have experience in retrieval and transport of patients with
ECMO.

Complications

•    Circuit related
•     Anticoagulation/Bleeding
•     Sepsis
•     Death

Summary statement

•  ECMO remains a specialised strategy
•  requiring appropriate resources and personnel.
•  However its use should be limited to centres with appropriate expertise, resources and experience and facilities for transport and retrieval should be supported.

Discussion

The question has a broad scope.

Rather than offer a summary of the applications of ECMO (which is done elsewhere) I will instead offer a summary of the literature regarding the use of ECMO

ECMO in neonates:

This has been going on since before 1986. Bartlett et al reported that after the experience, 63% of his patients were "normal or near normal".

ECMO in adults

The CESAR trial from the UK is quoted in the college answer. 63% survival at 6 months was indeed a wonderful thing.Not so for cardiac failure. In one 2004 study, only 37 out of 219 patients survived to 5 year follow-up. This does not seem to have improved with time. In general, nobody over the age of 75 survived to discharge.

ECMO as CPR has initially failed to yield satisfying results. In one study from 2003, the survival rate for patients in whom VA ECMO was started during CPR was 31%. Multi-organ system failure was the culprit there. However, a more recent observational study has produced some encouraging data.These days, it is beginnging to look more and more promising. The obvious disadvantage is that you need an ED which has a circuit cycling 24/7.

References

UpToDate has a nice summary chapter about ECMO.

The world is sustained by the guidelines published by ELSO (the Extracorporeal Life Support Organisation)

BARTLETT, ROBERT H., et al. "Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) in neonatal respiratory failure." Annals of surgery 204.3 (1986): 236-245.

Peek, Giles J., et al. "Efficacy and economic assessment of conventional ventilatory support versus extracorporeal membrane oxygenation for severe adult respiratory failure (CESAR): a multicentre randomised controlled trial." Lancet (London, England) 374.9698 (2009): 1351-1363.

Doll, Nicolas, et al. "Five-year results of 219 consecutive patients treated with extracorporeal membrane oxygenation for refractory postoperative cardiogenic shock.The Annals of thoracic surgery 77.1 (2004): 151-157.

De Waha, S., et al. "Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in refractory cardiogenic shock-the Leipzig ECMO registry." European Heart Journal 34.suppl 1 (2013): P4025.

Chen, Yih-Sharng, et al. "Analysis and results of prolonged resuscitation in cardiac arrest patients rescued by extracorporeal membrane oxygenation." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 41.2 (2003): 197-203.

Shin, Tae Gun, et al. "Extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation in patients with inhospital cardiac arrest: A comparison with conventional cardiopulmonary resuscitation*." Critical care medicine 39.1 (2011): 1-7.

Scanziani, Margherita, Leonello Avalli, and Roberto Fumagalli. "Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation Strategy in Cardiac Arrest." Resuscitation. Springer Milan, 2014. 109-117.

Question 13 - 2010, Paper 2

Outline the advantages and disadvantages of a CT scan, Transoesophageal echocardiography,   MRI  and  an  aortogram  for  the  evaluation  of  suspected aortic dissection.

College Answer

•    CT Advantages:
•    easy availability on an emergency basis
•     high sensitivity and specificity
•    can pick up complications involving the branches ( e.g. ischaemic gut) and extent of dissection into abdominal aorta
•    easier to monitor the patient than MRI
•    detects pericardial effusion.

Disadvantages: 
•    have to move the patient
•    iodinated contrast
•    cannot assess for AR, LV function or coronaries

•    TOE Advantages:
•    bedside test
•    can detect intimal flap, true and false lumen AR, tamponade
•    assess LV function
•    no contrast needed

Disadvantages: 
•     semi-invasive
•    may need anaesthesia/intubation
•    may cause undesirable hypertension
•    not widely available
•    special expertise required


•     MRI Advantages:
•    High sensitivity and specificity
•    MR contrast (Gadolinium) has more favourable safety profile
•    can detect AR

Disadvantages: 
•    Not readily available
•    inconvenient (patient motionless for 30 minutes)
•    access and monitoring difficult
•    limited applicability (claustrophobia, pacemakers)

•     Aortography
Advantages: 
•    will detect intimal flap, AR
•    assess LV, tamponade, blocked coronaries (important for surgery in type A
dissection)

Disadvantages: 
•    not readily available
•     invasive
•    large contrast load

Discussion

The college answer can be more easily reduced into a table:

Imaging Modalities for the Evaluation of Aortic Dissection
Imaging modality Advantages Disadvantages
Aortogram
  • High sensitivity (86-88%) and specificity (75-94%)
  • Can detect blocked coronaries in Type A dissection
  • Can assess valves
  • May allow endoluminal repair during the same procedure, expertise permitting
  • Not easily available
  • Large contrast load
  • Time consuming
  • Ineffective in detecting intramural haematoma 
    (the contrast cannot get in there!)
  • Potential for false negative results when a thrombosed false lumen prevents contrast entry
  • Slightly lower sensitivity and specificity than TOE, CT or MRI; has been largely replaced by them.
CT
  • Easily available
  • High sensitivity (83-94%) and specificity (87-100%)
  • Information about end-organ ischaemia
  • Imaging of the vascular tree allows planning of surgical or endovascular approach
  • ECG-gated CT = cardiac motion artifact is abolished
  • Able to exclude conditions which mimic aortic dissection
  • Contrast exposure
  • No information about the valves
  • Risk of transfer to CT
  • Motion artifact could be an issue in ungated studies
MRI
  • High sensitivity and specificity (95-100% for both)
  • Contrast is less nephrotoxic
  • Information about end-organ ischaemia
  • Imaging of the vascular tree allows planning of surgical or endovascular approach
  • Occasionally allows assessment of aortic valve pathology, coronary arteries and the LV
  • Significant risk of transfer
  • Not easily available
  • Certain patient groups excluded (eg. recent trauma with surgical staples)
  • Often fails to characterize the relationship of an intimal flap and aortic root structures, specifically the coronary arteries
TOE
  • Can assess valves
  • Decent sensitivity (35-80%) and specificity(39-96%)
  • Performed at the bedside- no risk of transfer
  • Contrast not required
  • Allows detection of tamponade
  • Allows assesment of proximal coronary arteries
  • Able to detect intramural haematoma
  • Invasive
  • Accuracy is operator dependent
  • Requires sedation
  • May cause hypertension
  • Limited by a blind spot caused by interposition of the trachea and left main bronchus between the oesophagus and aorta
  • Unable to visualise the abdominal aorta
CXR
  • Rapidly available
  • Immediate evidence of widened mediastinum
  • A completely normal CXR in low risk patients may be meaningful as a means of excluding dissection
  • Inadequately sensitive (~71%)
  • Rarely able to exclude dissection in most patients

good article on this topic is available. It illuminates some of the finer points which the college answer has omitted:

  • In high risk patients, all the modalities are more or less equal in accuracy
  • In moderate risk patients, positive predicitive values are >90% for CT, MRI and TOE but only 65% for aortography
  • MRI is the most sensitive of the lot - in low risk patients, it picks up close to 100% of the dissections
  • All four modalities have a 85% negative predictive value.

 

References

Khan, Ijaz A., and Chandra K. Nair. "Clinical, diagnostic, and management perspectives of aortic dissection." Chest Journal 122.1 (2002): 311-328.

The canonical source for this information would have to be the most recent iteration of theACCF/AHA Guidelines for Diagnosis and Management of Patients With Thoracic Aortic Disease.

 

Question 27 - 2010, Paper 2

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the various biomarkers that can be used to diagnose patients with acute myocardial infarction?

College Answer

Biomarker

Advantages

Disadvantages

TnT, TnI

Onset 2-3 hours, peak 24-36 hours,
elevated for 7-10 days
Virtually cardiac specific
Cut off 99th percentile of normal population
New assays quite sensitive
Negative test predicts low 30 day cardiac risk
Stratify short and long term risk in STEMI
Stratify short and long term risk in non
STEMI 
Detect reinfarction
AUC correlates to extent of MI

Elevated in non MI cases eg PE, myocarditis ie detects cardiac injury not cause

Assay variability (TnI) for reference range Washout and peak altered by reperfusion May need second test if first value taken too early

Modest correlation of size of MI with peak level
Some TnT present in skeletal muscle although genes different. 1st gen assays less specific (TnT)

Incomplete understanding of elevation after cardiac surgery and non cardiac surgery Baseline  higher in chronic renal failure

CK

Widely used and available

Non specific as present in skeletal muscle and brain

CK MB

Level and ratio improves specificity cf CK

Less specific and sensitive than troponin

Myoglobin

Theoretically rapid detection 

Lacks specificity and no earlier detection than Tn

AST

Historically used with CK and LDH 

Non specific

LDH

Late onset and offset 
LD1 and 2 in muscle

Present in many tissues. Requires isoenzymes

CRP

Marker of inflammation

Non specific

ESR

Additive prognostic benefit esp women

Novel biomarkers

Copeptin, if levels low can rule out MI in addition to negative Troponin

Heart-type Fatty Acid Binding Protein (H-FABP) is an early marker of ischaemia.


B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) gives prognostic information post MI 

Other biomarkers of myocyte injury include  glycogen phosphorylase BB (GP-BB), myeloperoxidase, pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

Raised Copeptin is not specific to cardiac disease.


Studies using H-FABP alone for diagnosis have been disappointing 

Not shown to be superior to Troponin

Discussion

The paper was written for 2010.

Since then, none of these exciting "novel biomarkers" have become commonplace.

Furthermore, the older biomarkers which are non-specific (such as AST and CK) have not fallen off the list, even though we have known since the 1950s that they are essentially useless.

In the event that the above "model" answer table is too easy to memorise, I direct the reader to a lucid interpretation of the current state by Anthony McLean et al (2012). Alternatively, this 2006 article in Circulation covers cardiovascular biomarkers in excessive pedantic detail.

References

McLean, Anthony S., and Stephen J. Huang. "Cardiac biomarkers in the intensive care unit." Ann Intensive Care 2.8 (2012): 1-11.

 

Question 4 - 2011, Paper 1

You are asked to help resuscitate  a 75 year old man who has just arrived in the emergency department.   He has a blood pressure of 80/45 mmHg, HR 140/min, and a temperature of 38.5°C after 2 litres of normal saline resuscitation.The only history available is of significant cardiac disease.

Outline your approach to the management of his haemodynamic profile.

College Answer

Consider mixed aetiology for shock
•    Cardiogenic (cardiac history, severe sepsis, rhythm)
•    Distributive shock (sepsis)
•    Obstructive  shock (PE, tamponade)  – less likely but will probably  get mentioned.
Maybe give less marks for this than the other causes

Establishing relative contribution of each to the hypotension
•    Clinical Signs
•    Distributive;  warm  and  dilated  (if  adequate  filling),  temperature,  potential  source sepsis

•     Cardiogenic
•    LVF; tachycardia, bibasal crepitations, gallop
•    RVF; JVP, hepatomegaly, oedema
•    Escalating monitoring
•    Minimal: ECG, NIBP, SpO2
•    ABP, CVP progressing to Central Venous O2 Sat / TTE / PICCO / PAC as indicated

•    Laboratory Investigations directed at cause
•    Lactate, Troponin, ECG, CXR, Sepsis screen, UA
•    Collateral history

Interventions
•    Optimise preload
•     Cardiogenic
•    Optimize preload (low from redistribution
•    Optimize contractility
•    Rhythm; rate control / normalization (cardioversion?)
•    Inotropic support
•    Dobutamine / Milrone / Levosimenden / Adrenaline / Nor Ad (increases coronary art perfusion pressure) Caution with inodilators while still hypotensive

•     IABP
•    CPAP
•    Reversible / Specific factors

•    Exclude / treat ischaemia (heparin / angio , revascularisation etc.)
•     Distributive
•    Optimize preload
•    Vasopressor support
•     Noradrenaline
•    Adjuncts: Vasopressin / Steroid (infusion or bolus)
•    Mixed pathology issues
•    Risk of Noradrenaline  alone is an increased  afterload  with worsening  cardiogenic shock / peripheral perfusion

•    Start with inotrope and then add vasopressor; dobutamine / norad combination

•    Adrenaline may a safer choice (inotrope + vasoconstriction)

Discussion

This is a question about undifferentiated shock. The question really should read "how do you assess a patient in a non-specific shock state, and maintain their organ perfusion while looking for a cause?" It would probably be useful to mention a rapid focused bedside echo. Obvious hints in terms of fever and a history of crusty coronaries have been given. The examiners would mainly be looking for a systematic approach to diagnosis and treatment, without overcommitment to any specific diagnosis.

The following is really just a rearrangement of the college answer. A standard template of shock assessment should exist; it can be applied here with minimal variation.

Immediate management:

  • Attention to airway and breathing
  • Establish secure venous access
  • Introduce invasive monitoring tools - arterial/central line

Rapid assessment:

  • Focused history to differentiate a source of sepsis, and to assess the contribution of cardiac ischaemia
  • Physical examination to assess adequacy of peripheral perfusion
  • ABG, ECG, CXR, cardiac enzymes, blood and urine cultures
  • Rapid bedside TTE to rule out cardiac tamponade and to assess contractility
  • Fluid challenge 20-40ml/kg of crystalloid, to assess fluid responsiveness - plus/minus dynamic bedside manoeuvres
  • Consider advanced hemodynamic monitoring, eg. SvO2 PAC or PiCCO

Decisive management for this mixed shock state:

  • Control sepsis
    • Broad spectrum antibiotics, given early
    • Consider "stress dose" steroids
  • Optimise preload
    • Fluid boluses to continue, as permitted by measures of fluid responsiveness
  • Optimise afterload
    • Maintain organ perfusion and coronary filling by maintaining a MAP > 65 and a reasonable diastolic pressure, using vasopressors such as noradrenaline and vasopressin
  • Optimise rhythm
    • Consider early DC cardioversion if the rhythm is atrial fibrillation, to recover the "atrial kick"
  • Optimise contractility
    • If there is concern regarding contractility, consider inotropes eg. dobutamine milrinone or levosimendan
  • Use adjuncts to resuscitation
    • Consider IV thiamine, perticularly if there is lactic acidosis
  • Reverse any reversible factors
    • Early angiography or thrombolysis
    • Surgical source control for septic foci

References

Question 14 - 2011, Paper 1

Outline the value of the following in determining prognosis for neurological recovery in an adult patient admitted to ICU, after successful cardiovascular resuscitation from an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest:

a)     Peri-arrest data

b)     Clinical examination

c)     Neuro-imaging

d)     Neurophysiology

e)     Biomarkers

College Answer

a. Peri-arrest data:

Initial rhythm, bystander CPR, time to ROSC intuitively helpful and commonly considered, but have not been shown to correlate  with individual  outcome.   Co-morbidities  and pre- arrest performance status may determine overall survival.

b. Clinical Examination:

Unreliable  and of no predictive  value before 24 hours, clinical assessment  at ≥ 72 hours conventional
•    Appropriate     pre-conditions:    absence     of    sedation/relaxants,     adequate     CVS
resuscitation, normothermia, corrected biochemistry etc.
•    All data pertains to studies before the common use of therapeutic hypothermia, and the effect of this intervention  unknown.   May need longer than 72 hours to obtain reliable data from CNS examination in patients treated with induced hypothermia
•    GCS < 4, absent corneal response, absent pupillary response to light indicative of poor prognosis
•    myoclonus not sufficiently predictive to be reliable in isolation but myoclonic status epilepticus is a poor prognostic feature

c. Neuro-imaging:

•    CT may be performed early to exclude a CNS cause of arrest
•    CT  signs  of  poor  prognosis   include  qualitative   assessment,   and  quantitative assessment of white matter Houndsfield unit ratio.  Optimum timing not clear
•    MRI demonstration  of diffuse cortical lesions  or sub-cortical  lesions  is associated with poor outcome

d. Neurophysiology:

•    No neurophysiology study reliably predicts outcome at < 24 hours
•    EEG findings  of: diffuse suppression  to < 20 mV, burst suppression,  generalised seizures, diffuse periodic complexes indicate poor prognosis
•    EEG  shown  to  have  increased  false  positive  prediction  for  poor  outcome  after induced hypothermia
•    SSEP:  bilaterally  absent  cortical  responses  to  median  nerve  stimulation  seems highly accurate (0% False Positive Rate), not studied after induced hypothermia

e. Biomarkers:

•    Neurone specific enolase (NSE) most studied, some studies show 0% FPR for poor outcome, but cut-off levels vary, studies small

Discussion

With the exception of the "peri-arrest data" section, this question closely resembles Question 4 from the second paper of 2013.

The table from Question 4 is thus reproduced below, with the peri-arrest data section added, sans the confounding factors column. The whole peri-arrest data issue is better discussed in the chapter on prognostication of neurological recovery following a cardiac arrest.

Peri-arrest data:

Predictors of Poor Outcome in Comatose Survivors of Cardiac Arrest
Predictive sign or investigation Predictive utility Confounding factors
Absent pupillary reflex

 0% false positive rate at 72 hours, irrespective of cooling

  • Sedation
  • Hypothermia
  • Paralysis
  • Presence of shock
  • Metabolic derangements, eg. acidosis
Absent corneal reflex  0-15% false positive rate at 72 hours
Extensor motor response, or worse May be associated with poor outcomes
  • High false positive rate (~50%)
Myoclonic status epilepticus Persisting myoclonic status epilepticus has a 0% false positive rate within the first 24 hours
  • Interpreter-dependent
  • Findings may be subtle
  • Paralysis interferes with interpretation
Somatosensory evoked potentials:
absence of the N20 component
Absence of N20 predicts poor outcome with a0% false positive rate.

Presence of N20 does not rule out a poor outcome.

N20 responses may disappear on repeat testing.

N20 responses may reappear, but this does not suggest a good prognosis.

Burst suppression on EEG May be associated with poor outcome  Poor predicitive value; 
cannot be used for prognostication.
Absence of EEG reactivity Low false positive rate (0-5%) Confounded by sedation
Neuron-specific enolase NSE over 33μg/L at 1-3 days post CPR predicts poor outcome with a 0% false positive rate

NSE may be elevated for reasons other than brain injury; for instance, it may be secreted by neuroendocrine tumours

CT brain On CT, an inversed gray/white matter ratio in Hounsfield units was found in patients who failed to awaken after cardiac resuscitation. However, the predictive value of CT findings is not known

If performed too early, the CT may not demonstrate any findings.

The key features of the college answer one would be wise to remember include the following:

  • Arrest characteristics (eg. time to ROSC) do not correlate with individual outcome.
  • Clinical findings are unreliable within the first 24 hours.

References

Engdahl, Johan, et al. "Can we define patients with no and those with some chance of survival when found in asystole out of hospital?." The American journal of cardiology 86.6 (2000): 610-614.

Bunch, T. Jared, et al. "Outcomes and in-hospital treatment of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest patients resuscitated from ventricular fibrillation by early defibrillation." Mayo Clinic Proceedings. Vol. 79. No. 5. Elsevier, 2004.

Levine, Robert L., Marvin A. Wayne, and Charles C. Miller. "End-tidal carbon dioxide and outcome of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." New England Journal of Medicine 337.5 (1997): 301-306.

Rea, Thomas D., et al. "Temporal Trends in Sudden Cardiac Arrest A 25-Year Emergency Medical Services Perspective." Circulation 107.22 (2003): 2780-2785.

Carew, Heather T., Weiya Zhang, and Thomas D. Rea. "Chronic health conditions and survival after out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest." Heart 93.6 (2007): 728-731.

Goldberger, Zachary D., et al. "Duration of resuscitation efforts and survival after in-hospital cardiac arrest: an observational study." The Lancet (2012).

Wijdicks, E. F. M., et al. "Practice Parameter: Prediction of outcome in comatose survivors after cardiopulmonary resuscitation (an evidence-based review) Report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology."Neurology 67.2 (2006): 203-210.

Rogove, Herbert J., et al. "Old age does not negate good cerebral outcome after cardiopulmonary resuscitation: analyses from the brain resuscitation clinical trials."Critical care medicine 23.1 (1995): 18-25.

Levy, David E., et al. "Predicting outcome from hypoxic-ischemic coma." Jama253.10 (1985): 1420-1426.

Zandbergen, E. G. J., et al. "Prediction of poor outcome within the first 3 days of postanoxic coma." Neurology 66.1 (2006): 62-68.

Tapia, F. J., et al. "Neuron-specific enolase is produced by neuroendocrine tumours." The Lancet 317.8224 (1981): 808-811.

Torbey, Michel T., et al. "Quantitative analysis of the loss of distinction between gray and white matter in comatose patients after cardiac arrest." Stroke 31.9 (2000): 2163-2167.

Question 25.3 - 2011, Paper 1

A patient who underwent cardiac catheterization yesterday has this appearance of her foot.

a) What is the appearance due to?

b) Give two causes of a metabolic acidosis in this patient related to this event

College Answer

a) What is the appearance due to?
•    Cholesterol emboli or atheromatous emboli
•    (accept ischaemia secondary to damaged / occluded femoral artery)

b) Give two causes of a metabolic acidosis in this patient related to this event
•    acute renal failure
•    mesenteric ischaemia
•    limb ischaemia

Discussion

The damaged foot image has been harvested without permission from dermaamin.com; that is in fact a foot of somebody who has just had a shower of cholesterol emboli from an atheroma.

The possible causes of metabolic acidosis in this situation are well summed up by the college. It could be raised lactate due to limb ischaemia (or bowel ischaemia). Or, it could be due to renal failure.,

The renal injury could be developing as a result of myonecrosis and rhabdomyolysis. The angiography only happened yesterday, and so one would think that it is too early for contrast-induced nephropathy. Historically, the renal failure in these circumstances tends to be "pre-renal", and is blamed on showers of atheromatous debris into the renal vessels.

References

Drost, H. E. N. K., et al. "Cholesterol embolism as a complication of left heart catheterisation. Report of seven cases." British heart journal 52.3 (1984): 339-342.

 

Question 26.1 - 2011, Paper 1

A 70 year old man was admitted to the emergency department with shortness of breath and hypotension. He was discharged a week ago from hospital after having undergone an uneventful coronary artery bypass grafting procedure.

a)  What is the major abnormality on the ECG and what is the likely diagnosis?

b)  What investigation is required to confirm your diagnosis?

College Answer

a)  What is the major abnormality on the ECG and what is the likely diagnosis?

Electrical alternans, Pericardial tamponade

b)  What investigation is required to confirm your diagnosis?

Echocardiography.

Discussion

This pattern recognition question is easy marks and requires little thought.

I picked a relatively subtle ECG to put up here; the Google image search bristles with gratuitously obvious examples of electrical alternans.

I expect the College would want their candidates to be able to recognise it when it is not totally obvious.

References

The ECG above comes from the LITFL library of ECG clincal cases

In addition, there is an influential paper on this: Usher, Bruce W., and Richard L. Popp. "Electrical alternans: Mechanism in pericardial effusion." American heart journal 83.4 (1972): 459-463.

 

Question 26.3 - 2011, Paper 1

A 60 year old diabetic man was admitted following a syncopal episode to the emergency  department.  His GCS is 8. You have been called  to assess  him with a view to taking him to ICU.

a)     Comment on the ECG

b)    List 5 further investigations you will perform

College Answer

a)     Comment on the ECG

Normal ECG with sinus rhythm

b)    List 5 further investigations you will perform

BSL, troponin, CT head, Head and neck vascular studies, Holter monitoring, Echo, EEG.

Discussion

The question really asks the candidate to generate some differentials for an undifferentiated loss of consciousness, with a normal ECG. Creepily, the patient still has a GCS of 8, which suggests that not all is well intracranially.

References

The European Sociaty of Cardiology has a Taskforce on Syncope; and they have produced a guideline statement.

Brignole, Michele, et al. "Guidelines on management (diagnosis and treatment) of syncope–Update 2004 The task force on Syncope, European Society of Cardiology." European Heart Journal 25.22 (2004): 2054-2072.

Table 1 from the above statement seems like a comprehensive list of differentials.

 

Question 6.1 - 2011, Paper 2

This is the ECG of a 74-year-old gentleman who had an out of hospital cardiac arrest. 

RBBB + LPFB

1. What are the abnormalities on the ECG?

2. What would your management plan be if the patient makes a good functional neurological recovery? 

College Answer

1. Right bundle branch block and left posterior fascicular ( or right axis deviation) block

2. Permanent Pacemaker + Coronary angiography to exclude coronary vascular disease

Discussion

This is another "what ECG is this?" question, made harder to discuss because the college has removed the ECG from its paper.

... its a bi-fascicular block:

  • RBBB 
    • Wide QRS
    • RSR pattern in V1
    • Wide slurred S waves in I and V6
  • LPFB
    • Right axis deviation (QRS in III is taller than II; lead I and aVL are negative
    • No better explanation for the right axis deviation

This image was stolen from ecgmedicaltraining.com

As all bifascicular blocks, this one out to be managed with a permanent implanted device.

References

ACC 2008 guidelines are the direct source for all pacemaker-related recommendations.

 

ACC/AHA/HRS 2008 Guidelines for Device-Based Therapy of Cardiac Rhythm Abnormalities: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines (Writing Committee to Revise the ACC/AHA/NASPE 2002 Guideline Update for Implantation of Cardiac Pacemakers and Antiarrhythmia Devices): developed in collaboration with the American Association for Thoracic Surgery and Society of Thoracic Surgeons.

 

Question 6.2 - 2011, Paper 2

This is an ECG of a 77-year-old woman.
 

1. Describe the ECG. 

2. Give two possible reasons for the ST changes. 

College Answer

1 Regular rhythm rate 75. atrial pacing spike, t wave flattening with reverse tick

2 Ischaemia or digoxin

Discussion

Try as I might, I could not find an ECG with both atrial pacing apikes and digoxin toxicity.

I believe digoxin toxicity is probably the main issue here, so the ECG above is from the LITFL opus which discusses its characterisitc ECG effects.

Particularly memorable is their reference to Salvador Dali's moustache as resembling the "reverse tick" appearance of the digitalised ST segment.

References

Question 6.3 - 2011, Paper 2


1 Describe the ECG shown. 

2 Give two interventions that may assist in clarification as to the aetiology of this rhythm? 

College Answer

1 Narrow complex tachycardia rate 170-200 bpm. ST depression inferiorly. Meets voltage criteria for Left ventricular hypertrophy with strain. Could be atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation or SVT

2 Either carotid sinus massage (after auscultation of carotids to exclude bruit) or other vagal manoeuvre or administration of push dose of adenosine if no asthma.

Discussion

This SVT question addresses the candidate's knowledge of the most recent resuscitation guidelines for the management of hemodynamically unstable narrow-complex tachycardia.Unable to locate an ECG with the specific features which the college wanted, I was limited in what I could post up there, and ultimately I settled on an SVT without any features of ischaemia and only the barest hint of LVH.

References

One may turn to the ARC guidelines for management of supraventricular tachycardias (guideline 11.9), which suggests (Class A evidence) that in a stable patient, vagal manoeuvres ought to be tried and then adenosine may be used unless contraindications exist. An unstable patient may also have a trial of adenosine while a defibrillator is being acquired, or while the chest is being shaved etc.....

As their reference for this set of guidelines, the ARC quote the ACC's statement.

 

Question 6.4 - 2011, Paper 2



1. Describe the ECG shown. 

2. Which coronary artery territory may be involved in the pathophysiology of this case?

College Answer

1 Sinus rhythm of 92 bpm. ST elevation of >2mm in II, III AVF and V5,6 with reciprocal changes in V1 and AVR. Consistent with myocardial infarction or pericarditis

2 Right coronary artery territory or LCx if dominant left system

Discussion

This is another "what ECG is this?" question, made harder to discuss because the college has removed the ECG from its paper.

Thankfully, I was able to find an example of an infarct with prciely these characteristics, as well an erudite discussion of its finer points.

This bounty is available for all to see at EMS12Lead.

References

No published evidence is possible or necessary.

However, EMS12Lead has pointed me to an article which may be of interest, if for no other reason then at least because it is by Sgarbossa et al (yes, that Sgarbossa).

Sgarbossa et al., Electrocardiographic diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction: Current concepts for the clinician. Am Heart J. 2001;141:507-17

 

Question 10 - 2011, Paper 2

Critically evaluate the use of plasma troponin in the critically ill patient.

College Answer

Greater specificity to cardiac damage than CK-MB / AST which can also be found in skeletal muscle

• Useful marker in acute coronary syndromes, where a higher level is indicative of a greater mortality and morbidity

• There has been recent discussion regarding the use of troponin and the diagnosis of myocardial infarction, and the definition has been standardised by the ECS / AHA. Myocardial infarction is defined as demonstration of myocardial ischaemia plus the addition of a significant plasma troponin rise (Circulation 2007)

• Numerous studies that show plasma troponin can be raised in other cardiac conditions, e.g. pericarditis, atrial fibrillation cardioversion, and non cardiac conditions e.g. renal failure, PE, sepsis.

• Plasma troponin levels should be used as a risk stratification tool in conjunction with other tests e.g. ecg and echo, depending on the presenting medical condition

• This has significance in critically ill patients in the non ACS-AMI setting. Medications used for a troponin rise in the setting of ACS / AMI, e.g. anti-coagulants and anti-platelet therapy are not benign, and can have detrimental effects in critically ill patients who have troponin rises due to non ACS / AMI

• Monitoring for ischaemia in the ICU patient

Discussion

Though the college answer is different, this question closely resembles Question 8  from the second paper of 2006. One is tempted to point out that these questions do not ask specifically about troponin use in the acute coronary syndromes.

In general, the college seems to have wanted to observe several key points in the answer:

  • Awareness regarding the origins and physiological role of troponin in the myocyte
  • Knowledge that it is specific to the myocardium
  • Understanding of its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac damage
  • Relationship between high levels and poorer prognosis in acute coronary sydnrome
  • Awareness that troponins can rise in other conditions.

Rationale for the use of troponin in the critically ill:

  • Troponin is an enzyme involved in the excitation-contraction coupling of the myocardium.
  • Troponin T serves to attach the troponin complex to actin and tropomyosin.
  • Myocardiac damage (for example infarction) causes the release of troponin.
  • There is a cytosolic pool (which is released early in the infarct) and a structural pool (which is slowly released over days as the damaged myocardium decomposes).

Advantages of using troponin in critically ill patients

  • Its a sensitive and specific marker of myocardial ischaemia.
  • It is more sensitive and specific than AST, CK and CK-MB (which are also found is skeletal muscle)
  • It is an independent predictor of 30-day mortality in STEMI 
  • It is associated with a poorer outcome in the critically ill patients.
  • Troponin levels can be used to monitor for myocardial ischaemia in critically ill patients when history and examination are unreliable.

Advantages of using troponin in acute coronary syndromes

  • Troponin forms a part of the ECS and AHA universal definition of acute coronary syndrome (it consists of a troponin rise as well as a demonstration of ischaemic symptoms,  echocardiographic evidence, or ECG changes.)
  • The troponin levels are not diagnostic, but are a risk stratification tool to be used together with echocardiography, ECG, history and examination.
  • Troponin levels can be used for the late diagnosis of MI and to monitor for reinfarction
  •  The use of troponin as a part of a risk stratification strategy is important in selecting patients for anticoagulation and anti-platelet therapy, so as to prevent the exposure of patients to unnecessary bleeding risk.

Disadvantages for the use of troponin in critical illness

  • A reliance on biomarkers may become unhealthy if it takes focus off clinical examination and history.
  • It is not quantitatively validated outside the setting of ACS / AMI, but only qualitatively: i.e. a "positive" troponin is associated with worse outcomes in noncardiac critical illness, but we don't know whether a higher troponin is associated with a proportionally higher mortality.
  • As with all biomarkers, inappropriately low threshold levels or testing out of appropriate clinical context could give rise to unnecessary treatments (eg. loading doses of antiplatelet drugs) or investigations (eg. angiography, with needless contrast exposure)
  • Troponin levels can be raised for a variety of non-cardiac reasons.In their 2006 article, Korff et al offer an excellent table of things which cause troponin elevation, together with the mechanism of troponin release or assay confusion. Their Table 1 is reinterpreted here. 
    • Myocarditis 
    • Renal failure - its cleared renally
    • Sepsis
    • Atrial fibrillation
    • Post-cardioversion 
    • Cardiac trauma 
    • Pulmonary embolism 
    • Acute stroke
    • Intracranial haemorrhage
    • Severe burns
    • Rhabdomyolysis (particularly during recovery)
    • Skeletal muscle damage in glycogen storage disease
    • Defective assay (cross-reactivity with skeletal troponin isoforms)
 

References

This article has a nice graph of cardiac biomarker concentrations over time after an infarct:
Wu et al; National Academy of Clinical Biochemistry Standards of Laboratory Practice: Recommendations for the Use of Cardiac Markers in Coronary Artery Diseases. Clinical Chemistry 45:7 1104 –1121 (1999)

There is a CICM fellowship question regarding the critical appraisal of troponin in the ICU population.

The ECS and AHA statement referred to in the college answer is this article published in Circulation in 2007:

(Kristian Thygesen et al; Universal Definition of Myocardial Infarction. Circulation 2007, 116:2634-2653

This article from Current Opinion in Critical care (2004) discusses the various causes of raised troponin among ICU patients:


Ammann et al,Troponin as a risk factor for mortality in critically ill patients without acute coronary syndromes. Journal of the American College of Cardiology Volume 41, Issue 11, 4 June 2003, Pages 2004–2009

The fact that troponin rise among the critically ill population is associated with a poorer prognosis is supported by this study:


Gunnewiek et al. Cardiac troponin elevations among critically ill patients. Current Opinion in Critical Care: October 2004 - Volume 10 - Issue 5 - pp 342-346

Liu, Michael, et al. "Prognostic Value of Initial Elevation in Cardiac Troponin I Level in Critically Ill Patients Without Acute Coronary Syndrome." Critical care nurse 35.2 (2015): e1-e10.

Ahmed, Amna N., et al. "Prognostic significance of elevated troponin in non-cardiac hospitalized patients: A systematic review and meta-analysis." Annals of medicine 46.8 (2014): 653-663.

Ammann, P., et al. "Elevation of troponin I in sepsis and septic shock." Intensive care medicine 27.6 (2001): 965-969.

Landesberg, Giora, et al. "Troponin elevation in severe sepsis and septic shock: the role of left ventricular diastolic dysfunction and right ventricular dilatation." Critical care medicine 42.4 (2014): 790-800.

Smith, Andria, et al. "Elevated cardiac troponins in sepsis: what do they signify?." West Virginia Medical Journal 105.4 (2009): 29-33.

Tiruvoipati, Ravindranath, Nasreen Sultana, and David Lewis. "Cardiac troponin I does not independently predict mortality in critically ill patients with severe sepsis." Emergency Medicine Australasia 24.2 (2012): 151-158.

Suarez, Keith, et al. "TROPONIN TESTING IN PATIENTS HOSPITALIZED FOR SEPSIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASED CARDIOVASCULAR TESTING AND LENGTH OF STAY." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 67.13 (2016): 451.

Sheyin, Olusegun, et al. "The prognostic significance of troponin elevation in patients with sepsis: a meta-analysis." Heart & Lung: The Journal of Acute and Critical Care 44.1 (2015): 75-81.

Hunter, J. D., and M. Doddi. "Sepsis and the heart." British journal of anaesthesia 104.1 (2009): 3-11.

Vieillard-Baron, Antoine, et al. "Actual incidence of global left ventricular hypokinesia in adult septic shock." Critical care medicine 36.6 (2008): 1701-1706.

Donzé, Jacques D., et al. "Impact of sepsis on risk of postoperative arterial and venous thromboses: large prospective cohort study." BMJ 349 (2014): g5334.

Korff, Susanne, Hugo A. Katus, and Evangelos Giannitsis. "Differential diagnosis of elevated troponins." Heart 92.7 (2006): 987-993.

Wens, Stephan CA, et al. "Elevated Plasma Cardiac Troponin T Levels due to Skeletal Muscle Damage in Pompe Disease." Circulation: Genomic and Precision Medicine (2016): CIRCGENETICS-115.

Sribhen, Kosit, Rewat Phankingthongkum, and Nilrat Wannasilp. "Skeletal muscle disease as noncardiac cause of cardiac troponin T elevation." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 59.14 (2012): 1334-1335.

Question 26.3 - 2011, Paper 2

List 4 causes of a diastolic murmur over the apical area.

College Answer

Mitral stenosis
Severe mitral regurgitation (flow murmur)
Significant left to right shunt (VSD)
Austin-Flint murmur of aortic regurgitation
Carey-Coombs murmur

Discussion

This question interrogates one's knowledge of the highly regarded Talley and O'Connor manual of physical examination.

I have used this book to revisit the issue of physical examination in some detail.

In Talley and O'Connor, there is a particular table which this question references. To be precise, it is Table 3-9 in the 6th edition ("Cardiac murmurs").

The mitral stenosis, VSD and severe MR are well known and require little thought from the candidate.

Not so, for the other two.

Specifically, the Carey Coombs murmur is discussed. Not "Carey-Coombs" as the college puts it, but Carey Coombs, named after Dr C.F. Coombs from Bristol. Anyway, its a "short mid-diastolic rumble" which disappears with resolving valvular disease.

The Austin-Flint murmur is not hyphenated either - and it is named after Austin Flint, who was a damn genius and generally deserves to have his murmur spelled correctly in official college papers. Its a murmur of the aortic regurgitation jet hitting the apex of the left ventricle in diastole. The great man himself, with lucid clarity described the murmur in his seminal article:

"“Oftener rough than soft. The roughness is often peculiar. It is a blubbering sound, resembling that produced by throwing the lips or the tongue into vibration with the breath of respiration.” 

Its poetry. In fact, the whole article is awesome. It is peppered with terms like "amphoric resonance" and "puerile respiration", which have since become lost in this era of trans-thoracic echocardiography.

 

References

Clinical Examination of the Critically Ill Patient, 3rd edition by L.I.G. Worthley - which can be ordered from our college here.

Clinical Examination: whatever edition, by Talley and O'Connor. Can be acquired any damn where.

Flint, Austin. Compendium of Percussion & Auscultation, and of the Physical Diagnosis of Diseases Affecting the Lungs and Heart. W. Wood & Company, 1870.

Question 14 - 2012, Paper 1

Question 13 and Question 14 both relate to the following clinical scenario:

A 71-year-old man is transferred to your intensive care unit following a mechanical aortic valve replacement and coronary artery bypass surgery.

The anaesthetist reports that he came off bypass readily, has not required any inotropic support, and has epicardial pacing wires in situ. However, shortly after arrival his blood pressure falls to 60/30.

Question 13 was as follows:

a) Outline your differential diagnosis for his hypotension

His blood pressure improves rapidly with a fluid bolus, and examination is otherwise unremarkable. However, he is noted to lose 250ml of blood from his mediastinal drains over the next 30 minutes.

b) List 4 likely causes of, or contributors to, excessive post-operative bleeding in this setting, and outline your immediate management.

Question 14 continues from the above.

Twenty four hours later, he develops a new-onset tachycardia as shown in the ECG below. (again, the college has removed the images from their paper, but I have found an alternative (hopefully equivalent) image)

a) What is your interpretation of the ECG?

b) Outline your initial management of the tachycardia

c) List 3 primary non-cardiovascular causes of the above tachycardia.

College Answer

a) What is your interpretation of the ECG?

Atrial fibrillation (vent rate approx. 170) LAD

LVH

Lateral T inversion.

b) Outline your initial management of the tachycardia

  • Attention to airway, breathing and circulation.
  • Identify and rectify reversible factors as above
  • Fluid bolus if hypovolaemic
  • Correct electrolyte abnormalities
  • Check pacemaker
  • Treat pain
  • Consider MgSO4
  • Assess for haemodynamic compromise.
    • If significant haemodynamic compromise, early mechanical cardioversion.
    • If tolerating arrhythmia haemodynamically, options are rate-control or pharmacological cardioversion.
    • Rate-control – IV Digoxin or beta-blocker
    • Pharmacological cardioversion – Amiodarone, Sotalol, Class 1A or 1C

c) List 3 primary non-cardiovascular causes of the above tachycardia.

  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Alcohol binge
  • Sepsis /Pneumonia
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
  • Association with Friedrich’s ataxia although this is due to a cardiomyopathy. 

Discussion

Though the previous question for this scenario was more related to the consequences of cardiothoracic surgery, this question focuses on the generic features of managing AF in the ICU. 

First of all, let us lament again the absence of ECG images from the papers. I had to steal my material from this source. If their lawyers ever contact me, I will be very upset.

Now, lets examine the college answer for the management of AF. 

The first seven points are hardly sophisticated. This seems to have required a registrar-level answer.

  • Attention to airway, breathing and circulation.
  • Identify and rectify reversible factors as above
  • Fluid bolus if hypovolaemic
  • Correct electrolyte abnormalities
  • Check pacemaker
  • Treat pain
  • Consider MgSO4​

No geniuses needed here.

The next section deals with the discrimination between haemodynamically stable and haemodynamically unstable AF.  This refers to the arrhythmia algorithm in the pre-arrest management section of the ARC ALS Handbook, and is therefore based on ILCOR Guidelines. The ARC book is not available online, but the UK version thankfully is.  Again - its nothing special; you shock the unstable ones, and the stable ones give you plenty of time to debate the choice of rhythm or rate control medications.

As for the non-cardiac causes of AF- only 3 are asked for; however the list is enormous. This British publication contains Table 1.2 (on page 6) briefly lists 6 causes. To the college answer, they would add lung cancer, pulmonary embolism, and pleural effusion. Much larger tables of causes exist in the atrial fibrillation chapter of the Required Reading section for cardiology. To simplify revision, they are reproduced below:

Causes of Atrial Fibrillation Organised by System

Vascular:

  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage

Infectious:

  • Sepsis
  • Myocarditis
  • Pericarditis
  • Infective endocarditis

Neoplastic:

  • Cardiac mass, eg. myxoma

Drug-induced:

  • Catecholamines
  • Alcohol
  • Caffeine

Idiopathic:

  • Infiltrative disease, eg. amyloidosis
  • Age-related fibrotic changes

Idiopathic:

  • Infiltrative disease, eg. amyloidosis
  • Age-related fibrotic changes

Congenitial:

  • Atrial septal defect
  • Familial AF

Autoimmune:

  • Autoimmune myocarditis

Traumatic:

  • Cardiac contusion
  • Cardiac surgery

Endocrine/environmental:

  • Hypothermia
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Haemochromatosis/iron overload
  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Electrolyte derangement
Causes of Atrial Fibrillation Organised by Pathophysiology

Catecholamine excess

  • Exogenous (eg. adrenaline infusion)
  • Endogenous:
    • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
    • Stress
    • Phaeochromocytoma
    • Thyrotoxicosis (indirectly)

Atrial distension

  • Pulmonary hypertension:
    • Obstructive sleep apnoea
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Primary pulmonary hypertension
    • Pulmonic valve disease
  • Septal defects
  • Valvular disease, including infective endocarditis

Abnormality of conducting system

  • Congenital cardiac disease, eg. septal defect
  • Infiltrative cardiac disease, eg. amyloidosis
  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Age-related fibrotic changes
  • Haemochromatosis/iron overload
  • Hypothermia

Increased atrial automaticity

  • Alcohol
  • Caffeine
  • Catecholamines
  • Electrolyte derangement
  • Myocarditis

References

Frederick A. Hensley, Jr., M.D., Donald E. Martin, M.D.,  Glenn P. Gravlee, M.D. A Practical Approach to Cardiac Anaesthesia, 3rd ed. Sibylle A. Ruesch and Jerrold H. Levy. CHAPTER 9. The Postcardiopulmonary Bypass Period: A Systems Approach. 2003 by LIPPINCOTT WILLIAMS & WILKINS

 

National Collaborating Centre for Chronic Conditions (Great Britain). "Atrial fibrillation: national clinical guideline for management in primary and secondary care." Royal College of Physicians, 2006.

Question 19 - 2012, Paper 1

  • Briefly, outline the concepts behind intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation (IABCP)
  • Identify the points labelled A-F on the following intra-aortic balloon pump pressure-time trace?

  • What methods can be used to check that the IABCP catheter is in the correct position, both during and after insertion?
  • What methods can be used to trigger the IABCP?
  • Blood is seen in the tubing connected to the gas lumen of the IABCP catheter. What problem do you suspect, and what action should be taken? 

College Answer

a) Concepts behind intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation (IABCP)

Classic concept of intra-aortic balloon counter pulsation involves inflation in synchrony with aortic valve closure at the onset of isovolumic diastole and the appearance of the dicrotic notch

This displaces blood comparable to the balloons volume into the peripheral circulation during diastole

To accomplish further unloading and to prevent interference with left ventricular ejection, balloon deflation starts prior to opening of the aortic valve and the onset of LV ejection

The classic response is thus is a lowering of the systolic pressure and augmentation of the diastolic pressure

The main benefits are a decrease in afterload and increased coronary artery perfusion with secondary improvements in hemodynamics

b)

A = Assisted systole

B = Diastolic augmentation

C = Unassisted systole

D = Unassisted aortic end-diastolic pressure

E = Dicrotic notch

F = Assisted aortic end-diastolic pressure

  • Methods
  • Image intensifier screening during insertion
  • Length of catheter inserted should be distance from insertion point to umbilicus, plus distance from umbilicus to sternal angle
  • Position on TOE should be 2 cm distal to L subclavian
  • CXR to confirm position - Just above the level of the left main bronchus or 2nd or 3rd intercostal space

e) Methods can be used to trigger the IABCP

  • ECG
  • BP
  • Pacing

e) Problem

• Balloon rupture should be suspected. IABCP catheter should be disconnected from console. It should then be removed (and replaced if it is still needed).

Discussion

IABP is discussed in greater detail elsewhere.

  • Briefly, outline the concepts behind intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation (IABCP)
    • The balloon inflates in diastole, displacing aortic blood both into the systemic circulation and into the coronary arteris.
    • The ballon deflates before systole, decreasing aortic pressure
    • Diastolic augmentation thus improves coronary blood flow
    • Systolic augmentation this decreases afterload and LV workload
  • Identify the points labelled A-F on the following intra-aortic balloon pump pressure-time trace?

labelled diagram of IABP trace

  • What methods can be used to check that the IABCP catheter is in the correct position, both during and after insertion?
    • Measurement of the length of insertion: from insertion point to umbilicus, plus distance from umbilicus to sternal angle
    • Fluoroscopy-guided insertion
    • TOE
    • CXR

Alternatively (and dangerously) one can retract the IABP until it no longer causes diminished left subclavian bloodflow.

  • What methods can be used to trigger the IABCP?
    • Blood pressure
    • ECG
    • Pacemaker
  • Blood is seen in the tubing connected to the gas lumen of the IABCP catheter. What problem do you suspect, and what action should be taken?
    • This means the balloon has ruptured. The IABP tends to stop pumping on its own when this happens - loss of helium pressure triggers the off-valve. The next step is to remove it.

References

Insertion of the IABP: a manual by MAQUET

Moulopoulos, Spyridon D., Stephen Topaz, and Willem J. Kolff. "Diastolic balloon pumping (with carbon dioxide) in the aorta—a mechanical assistance to the failing circulation." American heart journal 63.5 (1962): 669-675.

SOROFF, HARRY S., et al. "Assisted circulation II. Effects of counterpulsation on left ventricular oxygen consumption and hemodynamics." Circulation 27.4 (1963): 722-731.

Hanlon-Pena, Patricia M., and Susan J. Quaal. "Intra-aortic balloon pump timing: review of evidence supporting current practice." American Journal of Critical Care 20.4 (2011): 323-334.

Krishna, Murli, and Kai Zacharowski. "Principles of intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation." Continuing Education in Anaesthesia, Critical Care & Pain9.1 (2009): 24-28.

Nanas, J. N., and S. D. Moulopoulos. "Counterpulsation: historical background, technical improvements, hemodynamic and metabolic effects." Cardiology 84.3 (1994): 156-167.

Question 23.1 - 2012, Paper 1

A 45 year old woman is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic non-ketotic coma (HONK). A routine ECG is performed. 

  • What does it show?
  • What is your treatment of this problem? 

College Answer

  • Flattening of P waves & peaked T waves consistent with hyperkalaemia.
  • Treatment of hyperkalaemia:
    • Intravenous calcium based on K levels
    • Bicarbonate
    • Insulin/? Dextrose if she has HONK
    • Resonium / beta 2 agonists
    • Investigate for cause
    • Renal function/electrolytes

Discussion

The referenced article takes good care of the latter. The former is immediately recogniseable and requires little further discussion.

Again, I extend my thanks to LITFL for making public their awesome and massive ECG library.  

References

Weisberg, Lawrence S. "Management of severe hyperkalemia." Critical care medicine 36.12 (2008): 3246-3251. 

Question 23.2 - 2012, Paper 1

A 72 year old male presents with a fractured neck of femur following a syncopal episode. He is now well and has an ECG prior to his surgical procedure. 

 What does it show?
 What could be the cause of his fall and what is the management of the findings you have identified in the ECG?

College Answer

  • Tri-fascicular block
  • Cause:
    • Complete heart block.
  • Management:
    • Correct electrolyte and endocrine abnormalities (e.g. K+, thyroid function tests)
    • Consider influence of drug therapies such as digoxin, calcium channel antagonists
    • Investigate for ischaemic heart disease
    • Referral to cardiology unit for further evaluation (?permanent pacemaker)

Discussion

If you are working though these questions systematically in reverse chronological order, this will all sound very familiar. Old man, fall, trifascicular block... This question is a repeat.

Instead of replicating the discussion entry here,  one could refer the gentle reader to the most recent incarnation of this question (Question 18.1 from the first paper of 2013). However, in this incarnation of the SAQ, the college say that the cause was complete heart block. The ECG is borrowed from the LITFL library.

In this ECG, there is:

  • Right bundle branch block
  • Left axis deviation (Left anterior fascicular block)
  • Complete heart block

In summary, for a trifascicular block:

  • RBBB should not have any axis deviation
  • If there is RBBB and the QRS in leads I and aVF is not upright, you must assume there is some sort of fascicle block.
  • A left axis deviation suggests the anterior fascicle has failed;
  • Right axis deviation means the posterior fascicle has failed

The AHA/ACCF/HRS recommend anybody with that much conductive tissue disease get a pacemaker. Other possible contributing causes need to be addressed, which could include AV blocker drugs (beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin) and electrolyte derangement.

References

Question 23.3 - 2012, Paper 1

A 22 year-old-female presents following voluntary ingestion of 20 g of amisulpride (an atypical antipsychotic / anti-depressant). 

ECG 1:

ECG 2:

You are given the following ECG (ECG 1) and notice the changes seen on the second ECG tracing (ECG 2) whilst you are reviewing the patient.

  • What is the primary abnormality seen on the first ECG?
  • What is the abnormality seen on the ECG tracing (ECG 2)?
  • What is the most likely cause of this abnormality?
  • What is the management of this problem? 

College Answer

  • .Prolonged QT.
  • Torsades de pointes.
  • QT prolongation secondary to amisulpride intoxication.
  • Resuscitation with respect to ABC
    • Correct abnormalities and administer electrolytes
      • Intravenous magnesium sulfate
      • Treatment of hypokalemia
    • Consideration of acute cardiac pacing
    • Monitoring

Discussion

With the amisulpride being mentioned in the text, one anticipates both a long QT and torsades.

The 12-lead ECG above is actually from a paywall-protected MJA article about the dangers of QT prolongation in amisulpride toxicity.One can see the faint penstrokes of the MJA authors, where they clearly either measured or calculated the QT in their ECG.

It would be unforgiveable to omit the reference to LITFL, and particularly to their page on QT interval estimation.

As for torsades de pointes, it is a fairly straightforward answer.

  • Confirm cardiac arrest
  • Proceed with normal basic and advanced life support algorithm (for shockable rhythm) with emphasis on the use of lots and lots of magnesium sulfate.
  • If the patient is not arrested but is haemodynamically unstable, you attempt a DC cardioversion as you would for any broad-complex arrhythmia
  • If the patient is stable and able to tolerate this arrhythmia (which is unlikely) one may attempt to addess it chemically, with something like a magnesium sulfate bolus.
    • Additionally, you may want to avoid amiodarone.
    In some contaxts (eg. quinidine overdose) it may be reasonable to also give sodium bicarbonate, to increase the protein-bound fraction of the drug.  Authors of case reports on amisulpride toxicity (eg. Karunasekara et al, 2012) also seem to be giving bicarbonate to their patients as a means of improving their cardiovascular stability, by modifying pH until their catecholamine receptors actually have a chance to bind their ligands.
     
  • Then, one may wish to take some preventive measures:
    • In congential long QT syndrome, you typically decrease the heart rate with beta blockers. NOT SO for drug-induced long QT. These people need to go faster. Pacing or isoprenaline maybe required if they constantly have episodes of torsades.

References

John, Sally, Phebe O'Mullane, and Sophie Gosselin. "Amisulpride deliberate self-poisoning causing severe cardiac toxicity including QT prolongation and torsades de pointes." Med J Aust 184.7 (2006): 354-356.

 

Roden, Dan M. "Antiarrhythmic drugs: from mechanisms to clinical practice."Heart 84.3 (2000): 339-346.

 

Ayad, Ramy F., et al. "Causes and management of drug-induced long QT syndrome." Proceedings (Baylor University. Medical Center) 23.3 (2010): 250.

Gowda, Ramesh M., et al. "Torsade de pointes: the clinical considerations." International journal of cardiology 96.1 (2004): 1-6.

Karunasekara, Niroshini, Michael Wilcox, and Nigel Tufft. "Cardiovascular management of amisulpride overdose." Journal of the Intensive Care Society 13.2 (2012): 160-162.

Question 5.3 - 2012, Paper 1

Figure 4:

What two abnormalities are shown in the pressure tracing? 

College Answer



d) Abnormalities 
• Early balloon inflation 
• Early balloon deflation

 

Discussion

This is a pattern recognition question which relies on the candidate's familiarity with troubleshooting equipment.

Unfortunately, the college has removed the images, so nobody can recognise the patterns.

The depicted pattern in (d) was probably an IABP waveform where the balloon inflated and deflated too early.

The IABP chapter has some exhaustingly detailed discussions about what this means for your myocardial workload.

As a reminder, that waveform looks like this:

early IABP deflation fails to improve LV afterload

References

Directly relevant:

Maquet educational materails: IABP timing pocket reference guide

Mildly interesting:

Papaioannou, Theodoros G., and Christodoulos Stefanadis. "Basic principles of the intraaortic balloon pump and mechanisms affecting its performance."ASAIO journal 51.3 (2005): 296-300.

Question 19 - 2012, Paper 2

Discuss the potential mechanical strategies for supporting myocardial function in a 45-year-old man presenting with cardiogenic shock post-revascularisation for an acute anterior myocardial infarction. In your answer include the physiological rationale for each strategy.

College Answer

Positive End Expiratory Pressure

This can either be delivered invasively or non-invasively. By increasing the positive pressure within the thoracic cavity, venous return to the heart is reduced thereby reducing cardiac pre load to facilitate movement back to the optimal point on the Starling Curve. Also reduces afterload by reducing pressure gradient across the myocardial (left ventricular) wall. Also reduces work of breathing (reduces cardiac work) and improves PaO2 (O2 delivery to coronary blood flow).

Intra Aortic Balloon Pump

The inflation of the intra aortic balloon pump at the time of diastole increases coronary perfusion to increase cardiac contractility and reduces the after load at the commencement of systole as the balloon deflates

Pacing

Emergency transcutaneous, temporary transvenous and permanent multi-chamber pacing. Improves cardiac output by optimising the heart rate and/or synchronising A-V conduction optimising “atrial kick”. Increasing the heart rate to normal in profound bradycardia as CO = SV x HR. Overdrive pacing in tachyarrhythmias to re-establish normal conduction and then slow the heart improves cardiac output by increased ventricular filling and improved coronary artery perfusion in diastole.

Ventricular Assist Devices

This provides either a continuous or pulsatile pumping of blood from the left ventricle directly into the aorta (LVAD) or from right atrium or right ventricle directly to pulmonary artery (RVAD) or functions as both (BIVAD).

Decreases workload of the heart whilst maintaining adequate flow and blood pressure. Indicated if potentially reversible myocardial stunning or as a bridge to transplantation or for support during high-risk revascularisation procedures. In this patient as a bridge to transplantation may allow management as outpatient. Requires cardiac surgical expertise for insertion and so not available in all centres.

Veno-Arterial Extra Corporeal Membrane Oxygenation

Venous blood is extracted, oxygenated externally and then pumped and returned to the arterial system providing both oxygenation and circulation. Decreases workload of heart and lungs whilst maintaining flow, blood pressure and oxygenation. 
Requires expertise for insertion and maintenance and not available in all ICUs.

Discussion

The question specifically asks about mechanical strategies. Put away your levosimendan. Thus, apart from the "mechanical" support of positive pressure ventilation, one is left with pacing wires, the IABP, the LVAD, and VA ECMO.T hese are rather specialised devices, but thankfully Cove and MacLaren summarised the issues for us in their 2010 article which is brilliantly revelant to this question.

This article formed the core of my own tabulated summary. The abovementioned strategies are reviewed in terms of their advantages and limitations in a summary chapter from the Required Reading section (Mechanical haemodynamic support strategies in brief summary).

The table is presented below to simplify revision:

 Mechanical Haemodynamic Support Strategies
Strategy Advantages Limitations

Positive pressure ventilation:
the use of positive pressure to decrease LV preload and afterload (by manipulating transmural pressure)

  • Easy to apply
  • Minimally invasive
  • Added benefit of improved oxygenation and gas exchange
  • Invasive ventilation has the added benefit of anaesthesia +/- paralysis, which decreases whole-body oxygen demand
  • Preload reduction may result in hypotension in the volume-depleted patient
  • Increased intrathoracic pressure increases RV afterload, exacerbating right heart failure
  • Positive pressure may result in barotrauma and volutrauma
  • All the risks of mechanical ventilation apply, eg. VAP
Temporary transcutaneous pacing:
  • Requires minimal skill to apply
  • Minimally invasive
  • Cardiac output will increase in proportion to
  • Requires a substantial amount of analgesia and sedation
  • Uncomfortable for the patient
  • May cause significant tissue damage
  • Not a long-term solution
  • Poor A-V synchrony
Temporary transvenous pacing
  • Comparatively easy to insert
  • Dual-chamber pacing may improve A-V synchrony and restore the "atrial kick".
  • Not only does it work in bradycardia, but also by "overdrive pacing" in tachycardia, where the slowed heart rate allows for longer diastolic filling
  • Requires some expertise to manage and troubleshoot
  • Invasive, with all the risks of large-bore central venous access
  • Generally, one can only pace the ventricle, which means A-V synchrnoy will be lost; the "atrial kick" may be sorely missed by patients with severe valve dysfunction
Cardiac resynchronisation therapy: biventricular pacing
  • Restores synchrony to ventricular contraction in patients with severe heart failure
  • There is strong evidence that CRT reduces mortality and hospitalisation  (i.e. it is superior to AICD or medical therapy).
  • Requires specialist skill to insert and adjust; hardly an emergency procedure
  • To benefit, one must have LBBB, a wide QRS, and an LVEF less than 35%.
  • Generally, only about 5-10% of heart failure patients will benefit
  • There is a "heterogeneity of effect" in patients  who do not meet the recognised criteria (read: it does them no good)
Intra-aortic balloon pump:
  • Decreases LV afterload
  • Improves coronary arterial filling in diastole
  • Improves forward flow though defective mitral valves
  • Nowadays, little adjustment is required (automatic timing is usually satisfactory)
  • "Severe" cardiogenic shock is still not very well investigated, and there may be an unrecognised  mortality benefit in this group.
  • Violently invasive
  • Requires a certain level of expertise to place correctly.
  • Significant complications are associated with its use, including a non-zero rate of death and limb loss.
  • The mortality benefit in most patients might either be marginal or altogether absent, depending on what you read. Certainly, the IABP-SHOCK II trail did not demonstrate any survival improvement.
  • Does not benefit the right ventricle.
  • Contraindicated in aortic regurgitation
  • Poor effect in AF, particularly rapid AF
Ventricular assist devices:
  • Decreases myocardial workload
  • Offers a bridge to heart transplantation
  • Effective temporary support for myocardial stunning
  • May afford a period of outpatient management
  • Highly invasive
  • Requires surgical expertise to implement
  • Requires significant anticoagulation
  • Substantial risk of infection (50%)
  • In spite of anticoagulation, there is a significant risk of thrombosis
VA- ECMO
  • Not only decreases myocardial workload- it may take over all of the circulatory workload.
  • Attends to both circulation and gas exchange
  • Easier to implement (percutaneous technique does not require surgical expertise)
  • Highly invasive
  • Requires expertise to implement
  • Requires significant anticoagulation
  • In spite of anticoagulation, there is a significant risk of thrombosis
  • All the complications of large-bore arterial and venous access

Less relevant local links include the following:

References

Cove, Matthew E., and Graeme MacLaren. "Clinical review: mechanical circulatory support for cardiogenic shock complicating acute myocardial infarction." Crit Care 14.5 (2010): 235.

Boehmer, John P., and Eric Popjes. "Cardiac failure: mechanical support strategies." Critical care medicine 34.9 (2006): S268-S277.

Cooper, David S., et al. "Cardiac extracorporeal life support: state of the art in 2007." Cardiology in the young 17.S4 (2007): 104-115.

Question 30.1 - 2012, Paper 2

This is the ECG of a 62-year-old man undergoing treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia who presented with shortness of breath.

  • What are the abnormalities on this ECG?
  • What is the likely cause of his symptoms?

College Answer

a)

Atrial fibrillation

Low voltage complexes

Electrical alternans

b)

Pericardial effusion

Discussion

This of course is not the canonical CICM ECG, it is one which I found by Googling "AF with electrical alternans". Thus, the complexes are not actually "low volage". The presence of alternans is obscured by the irregularity of the AF, but it is still present, particularly if you look at leads V1 and V2.

In ideal conditions, electrical alternans should look like this:

electrical alternans in pericardial effusion

If the rightful owner of this image ever comes forward and demands I take it down, I will be forced to generate this electrical phenomenon in myself. 

References

Usher, Bruce W., and Richard L. Popp. "Electrical alternans: Mechanism in pericardial effusion." American heart journal 83.4 (1972): 459-463.

 

Question 30.3 - 2012, Paper 2

Report on the abnormalities on the following ECG:

College Answer

Right bundle branch block

Q waves in leads II III and AVF and T wave inversion in III and AVF indicative of old inferior infarct

>2 mm ST segment elevation in leads V2 and V3 and ST elevation in leads V4 and V5 indicating STEMI

Discussion

As the above ECG was combed out of random Google searches rather than CICM gospel, it does not contain Q waves.

It is, however, an example of RBBB with an anterior STEMI.

A vigorous discussion of the difficulties of this diagnosis (given that anteriorly the T waves are "apropriately discordant" in RBBB) occurs at the EMS12Lead blog. In short, the key seems to be to find the J-point (the transition from QRS into ST) and to demonstrate that it is above the isoelectric line

References

Pelter, Michele M., and Mary G. Adams. "ST segment changes in right bundle branch block." American Journal of Critical Care 14.4 (2005): 341-342.

Question 30.4 - 2012, Paper 2

The following is the ECG of a 61-year-old man in ICU following aortic valve replacement for endocarditis.

What does this ECG show?

College Answer

Complete heart block.

Discussion

This question is straightforward.  Any additonal discussion of such an effortless pattern recognition exercise would yet further degrade the quality of this already bloated resource.

References

Question 14.2 - 2013, Paper 1

In each part of this question, list clinical examination findings for each of the two underlined conditions that would help you to distinguish between them:

  • Aortic regurgitation or mitral stenosis as the cause of a patient’s diastolic murmur.

College Answer

Aortic regurgitation

  • Collapsing pulse / wide pulse pressure
  • Decrescendo murmur heard over left 3rd intercostal space parasternally
  • Murmur loudest sitting forward in expiration
  • Signs associated with large pulse volume and peripheral vasodilation; eg Corrigans, De Musets. Quinckes, Duroziez.
  • Evidence of associated conditions; Infective endocarditis, ankylosing spondylitis, other seronegative arthropathies, Marfans.
  • Soft 2nd heart sound
  • 3rd heart sound
  • Displaced apex beat
  • Signs of LV failure

Mitral stenosis

  • Malar flush
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Small pulse pressure
  • Loud 1st heart sound
  • Opening snap
  • Low-pitched, rumbling diastolic murmur over apex loudest in left lateral position
  • Pulmonary hypertension

Discussion

This question comes straight from Talley and O'Connor.

Specifically, the part of Chapter 3 (The Cardiovascular System) titled "Correlation of physical signs and cardiovascular disease". The sections dealing with aortic regurgitation and mitral stenosis make several statements to distinguish the two murmurs.

Unfortunately, its not as though there is a summary of it anywhere, nor is there any sort of table with the features of the various murmurs, which one might use as a quick reference. In fact the college answer is the closest thing to a summary of this issue.

Fortunately, before all these new-fangled gadgets came about, there were real physicians, who knew how to auscultate a praecordium. I have an 1958 article which contains precisely this sort of table, comparing the two murmurs according to their features. Together with the UpToDate page on heart sounds, this table has formed the basis of my "model answer". For more details, one may refer to the Circulation Research article by Sabbah et al (1976). In Aubrey Leatham's 1954 article for the Lancet, one may also find various causes of split heart sounds. Another important reference is  Walker's Clinical Methods, in which  Crowley's Chapter 27 is dedicated entirely to diastolic mumurs.

 
Features which Distinguish Aortic Regurgitation from Mitral Stenosis
Feature Aortic regurgitation Mitral stenosis
Rhythm usually sinus usually AF
First heart sound Normal S1 Loud S1
Second heart sound Soft S2 (A2) Normal S2 (M2)
Additional sounds Third heart sound (S3) Opening snap
Pulse quality Collapsing pulse Small pulse pressure
Where is it loudest 3rd intercostal space, parasternally Apex
When is it loudest Sitting forward, during expiration In a left lateral position
Pitch, quality Decrescendo low-pitched, rumbing
Associated findings

Signs of LV failure,

displaced apex beat

"Malar flush"
Coexisting disease Infective endocarditis, ankylosing spondylitis, other seronegative arthropathies, Marfans. Pulmonary hypertension

In case anybody is interested, here are the eponymous signs of aortic regurgitation which were mentioned by the college. If any of you young people are wondering why you (probably) have never heard of these, it is because they are almost completely useless.

Corrigans sign: a "jerky" carotid pulse: full expansion, followed by complete collapse. You're palpating the pressure of the left ventricle, essentially. It's named after a 19th century Irishman. It indicates a severe aortic incompetence. 

de Musset's sign which the college answer has spelled incorrectly is  a visible nodding of the head in time with arterial pulsation in patients with severe aortic insufficiency. It is named after an aortically insufficient French poet.

Quincke's sign, otherwise known as Quincke's pulse, is a nail sign: it is seen when the nailbed is blanched. The pale nail bed flashed red and white as capillary refill is restored. It can also be seen in the absence of any aortic problems, in patients who have sclerodactily.

Duroziez's sign is elicited by listening over the femoral artery with the bell of the stethoscope. It is supposed to be a double murmur. According to some recent evidence, it has almost 100% specificity. There is supposed to be both a systolic and a diastolic bruit, as blood rushes into - and then rapidly out of - the femoral artery.

References

Nicholas Joseph Talley, Simon O'Connor; Clinical Examination: A Systematic Guide to Physical Diagnosis (7th ed)

SEGAL, JACK P., W. PROCTOR HARVEY, and MICHAEL A. CORRADO. "The Austin Flint murmur: its differentiation from the murmur of rheumatic mitral stenosis." Circulation 18.5 (1958): 1025-1033.

Leatham, Aubrey. "Splitting of the first and second heart sounds." The Lancet 264.6839 (1954): 607-614.

Sabbah, HANI N., and PAUL D. Stein. "Investigation of the theory and mechanism of the origin of the second heart sound." Circulation research 39.6 (1976): 874-882.

Saberi, Asif, and Saeed A. Syed. "Corrigan’s sign." Hospital Physician (1999): 29.

DAVIES, M., and A. Hollman. "de Musset sign." Heart 82.3 (1999): 262.

Norton, S. A. "Keratoderma with pseudo-Quincke's pulse." Cutis 62.3 (1998): 135-136.

Sapira, J. D. "Quincke, de Musset, Duroziez, and Hill: some aortic regurgitations." Southern medical journal 74.4 (1981): 459-467.

Luisada, Aldo A. "On the pathogenesis of the signs of Traube and Duroziez in aortic insufficiency. A graphic study." American Heart Journal 26.6 (1943): 721-736.

BLUMGART, HERRMAN L., and A. CARLTON ERNSTENE. "Two mechanisms in the production of Duroziez's sign: their diagnostic significance and a clinical test for differentiating between them." Journal of the American Medical Association 100.3 (1933): 173-177.

Question 18.1 - 2013, Paper 1

The following ECG (labelled ECG 1) has been sent by fax from a doctor at a small rural hospital seeking advice. The ECG is that of a 78-year-old male presenting with a fractured neck of femur following a fall.

ECG

  • List the abnormalities shown on the ECG.
  • What cardiac complication may this patient develop?
  • What advice will you give the rural doctor?

College Answer

a)

Trifascicular block i.e. 1st degree heart block, left axis deviation, RBBB.

b)

Complete heart block.

c)

Establish cause of fall – mechanical or related to possible syncope. Continued cardiac monitoring. 
Referral to cardiology and transfer to centre with facilities for insertion TPW.

Discussion

Well, the ECG in the question above is the the canonical ECG from the CICM paper (seeing as they have removed them) but one which I have found on the glorious LITF archive of ECGs.

The moral of the story is that RBBB should not have any axis deviation, so if you see RBBB and the QRS in leads I and aVF is not upright, you must assume there is some sort of fascicle block. A left axis deviation suggests the anterior fascicle has failed; right axis deviation means the posterior fascile is at fault. I have a thing about that.

And yes, these tend to degenerate into complete heart block. In fact the AHA/ACCF/HRS recommend anybody with that much conductive tissue disease get a pacemaker. And they whinge interminably about the inappropriateness of using crudely unscientific terms like "bifascicular" and "trifascicular".

Then, for some reason, the college recommends temporary pacing wires be inserted.

For myself, I cannot understand. Surely, if this patient were transferred to a tertiary hospital, the facilities there would be appropriate for an urgent PPM insertion?

In any case, we all agree he needs a pacemaker so he doesn't break his other hip.

References

Question 18.2 - 2013, Paper 1

The following ECG (labelled ECG 2) is that of a haemodialysis patient presenting with pulmonary oedema.

  • What test will you do to confirm the likely underlying diagnosis?
  • What is your immediate management for this condition?

College Answer

a)

Potassium level

b)

Counteract cardiotoxic effects of hyperkalaemia

  • Calcium chloride
  • Sodium bicarbonate

Shift potassium into the cells

  • Dextrose and insulin
  • Beta agonists

Remove potassium (and water)

  • Urgent haemodialysis

Discussion

This is a pattern-recognition ECG question requiring little discussion.

The abnormality is obvious, and the question hints at the solution by mentioning hemodialysis.

Interestingly, chronically hyperkalemic patients on hemodialysis dont seem to have a classical presentation of ECG changes, making it difficult for their physician to predict a hyperkalemic arrest.

References

Montague, Brian T., Jason R. Ouellette, and Gregory K. Buller. "Retrospective review of the frequency of ECG changes in hyperkalemia." Clinical Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 3.2 (2008): 324-330.

Weisberg, Lawrence S. "Management of severe hyperkalemia." Critical care medicine 36.12 (2008): 3246-3251.

Question 18.3 - 2013, Paper 1

The following ECG (labelled ECG 3.) is that of an 83-year-old female found by her neighbour collapsed on the bathroom floor.

  • List the abnormalities shown on the ECG.
  • What do these abnormalities indicate?

College Answer

a)

Profound bradycardia

J (Osborn) waves

Atrial fibrillation

Shivering artefact

LVH

b)

Hypothermia

Discussion

The ECG I used above comes from LITFL and was not part of the CCIM paper.

I was luckty to find it; and it contains everything in the college answer, including LVH by voltage criteria and even shivering artifact.

References

Montague, Brian T., Jason R. Ouellette, and Gregory K. Buller. "Retrospective review of the frequency of ECG changes in hyperkalemia." Clinical Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 3.2 (2008): 324-330.

Weisberg, Lawrence S. "Management of severe hyperkalemia." Critical care medicine 36.12 (2008): 3246-3251.

Question 4 - 2013, paper 2

Describe the clinical signs and investigations available to predict poor neurological outcome in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest.
Include in your answer the factors that may confound the interpretation of these signs and investigations.

College Answer

Observations and Investigations:

Clinical Signs:

  • Absent brain stem reflexes.
  • Myoclonic status epilepticus within the first 24 hours.
  • (Generalised and repetitive myoclonus is strongly associated with poor outcome, with a reported false positive rate of 0%. Conversely, single seizures and sporadic myoclonus, do not accurately predict poor outcome.)
  • Absence of pupillary responses – within days 1 to 3 after CPR.
  • Absent corneal responses - within days 1 to 3 after CPR.
  • Absent or extensor motor responses – after 3 days post CPR.

Electrophysiological:

EEG patterns of generalised suppression, burst suppression, or generalised periodic complexes are strongly associated with poor outcome, but the prognostic accuracy is not considered as high as SSEP.

Bilateral absence of N20 component of SSEP with median nerve stimulation within 1-3 days post CPR is strongly associated with poor outcome.

Biochemical:

Serum neuron-specific enolase levels > 33mg/L at days 1-3 strongly associated with poor outcome.

(S100, CSF CKBB are not considered accurate enough for prognostication.)

Radiological:

Imaging may reveal catastrophic intracerebral cause for the arrest.

(Diffuse swelling on CT scan is common, but predictive power not known, role of MRI/PET also unclear.)

Confounding Factors:

Induced Hypothermia – majority of studies carried out before induced hypothermia widely used. Evidence that cooling may alter interpretation of these results, but to what extent remains unclear

Time of assessment: Period of at least 72 hours post CPR recommended. Unclear how hypothermia effects this.

CT scan done too early may not show changes

Sedatives / neuro- muscular blockers 
Metabolic derangements 
Presence of shock

Organ failure

Role of “self-fulfilling prophecy” in interpreting studies

Salient points

  • Absent brainstem reflexes
  • Extensor motor response
  • EEG
  • Myoclonic status epilepticus
  • SSEP
  • Neuron-specific enolase
  • CT brain (oedema)

Discussion

This question would benefit from a tabulated answer.

Predictors of Poor Outcome in Comatose Survivors of Cardiac Arrest
Predictive sign or investigation Predictive utility Confounding factors
Absent pupillary reflex

 0% false positive rate at 72 hours, irrespective of cooling

  • Sedation
  • Hypothermia
  • Paralysis
  • Presence of shock
  • Metabolic derangements, eg. acidosis
Absent corneal reflex  0-15% false positive rate at 72 hours
Extensor motor response, or worse May be associated with poor outcomes
  • High false positive rate (~50%)
Myoclonic status epilepticus Persisting myoclonic status epilepticus has a 0% false positive rate within the first 24 hours
  • Interpreter-dependent
  • Findings may be subtle
  • Paralysis interferes with interpretation
Somatosensory evoked potentials:
absence of the N20 component
Absence of N20 predicts poor outcome with a0% false positive rate.

Presence of N20 does not rule out a poor outcome.

N20 responses may disappear on repeat testing.

N20 responses may reappear, but this does not suggest a good prognosis.

Burst suppression on EEG May be associated with poor outcome  Poor predicitive value; 
cannot be used for prognostication.
Absence of EEG reactivity Low false positive rate (0-5%) Confounded by sedation
Neuron-specific enolase NSE over 33μg/L at 1-3 days post CPR predicts poor outcome with a 0% false positive rate

NSE may be elevated for reasons other than brain injury; for instance, it may be secreted by neuroendocrine tumours

CT brain On CT, an inversed gray/white matter ratio in Hounsfield units was found in patients who failed to awaken after cardiac resuscitation. However, the predictive value of CT findings is not known

If performed too early, the CT may not demonstrate any findings.

As far as cardiac arrest goes, a  2006 review of the evidence has been published in Neurology by the American Academy of Neurology. It outlines the main factors which influence neurological outcome after cardiac arrest. This 2006 statement has to some extent been superceded by the most recent ERC/ESICM statement (Sandroni et al, 2014). More detail on this topic has been summarised in the chapter on prognostication of neurological recovery following cardiac arrest.

References

Question 17 - 2013, paper 2

List the possible reasons why a patient with septic shock from infected pancreatitis may have ongoing hypotension despite intravenous fluid therapy, antibiotics and escalating inotrope requirement.

College Answer

Primary problem not fixed:

Untreated focus of infection/ inadequate primary source control e.g. pancreatic abscess, infected pseudocyst.

New septic site e.g. central line/ hospital acquired pneumonia / cholecystitis, urinary tract.

Systematic approach i.e. Hypovolaemic / obstructive / cardiogenic / distributive +/- endocrine etc.

  • Hypovolaemia or hidden bleeding
  • E.g. From surgical site/ peptic ulcer, “third space” losses (e.g. ascites from peritonitis)
  • Undiagnosed or new “obstructive shock”:
  • Tension pneumothorax / Pericardial effusion / gas trapping (auto PEEP) / pleural effusions / pulmonary emboli
  • Severe Intra abdominal hypertension
  • Dysrhythmia e.g. SVT, junctional rhythm etc.
  • New myocardial ischaemia
  • New/ undiagnosed cardiac valve pathology
  • Severe adrenal / pituitary / thyroid dysfunction.
  • Drug reaction / anaphylaxis
  • Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypophosphataemia and hypocalcaemia (the latter particularly with pancreatitis)

Technical:

CVL fallen out or not in a central vein / no pressors in the infusion bag

Measurement error – e.g. arterial line not zeroed/under or over damped, transducer height, wrong NIBP cuff size etc.

Miscellaneous:

Radial / central arterial monitoring discrepancy with severe vasoconstriction

Upper limb vascular disease (radial arterial line) or obstruction (e.g. dissection or aorto-occlusive disease: femoral arterial line)

Anti hypertensive drugs taken as part of patients usual medications

Discussion

This question does not rely on published evidence, but rather tests the candidate's ability to reason through shock in a systematic fashion.

If one were to approach it like a normal list of differentials, it would look like this:

Measurement artifact

  • Arterial line is incorrectly zeroed
  • Wrong sized cuff being used for NIBP

Vascular causes

  • CVC has fallen out or is extravasating
  • There is cardiac dysfunction due to MI, i.e. a cardiogenic shock - an ECG and TTE are warranted.
  • The patient is hypovolemic, and requires more fluid - bedside static and dynamic methods of fluid responsiveness could be employed to rule this out.
  • Air embolism (line-related)

Infectious causes

  • A new infection may be brewing. Cultures and a septic work-up are warranted.

Inflammatory causes

  • SIRS secondary to pancreatitis
  • SIRS secondary to systemic hypoperfusion
  • Capillary leak syndrome

Drug-induced causes

  • Inappropriate drug administration - is there even any noradrenaline in that infusion bag?
  • Anaphylactic drug reaction -review allergy history and examine for a rash; look for eosinophilia and send off a mast cell tryptase level.

Traumatic causes

  • CVC insertion has resulted in a retroperitoneal, pleural or mediastinal hematoma
  • The pancreatic pseudocysts has eroded into the splenic artery aneurysm, and the patient is exsanguinating into the abdomen
  • Either way, an FBC and abdominal ultrasound would rapidly exclude these causes

Endocrine causes

  • Untreated hypothyroidism
  • Untreated absolute adrenal insufficiency
  • Relative adrenal insufficiency
    • One would send TFTs and a random serum cortisol, then start "stress dose" steroids.
  • Hypocalcemia may be causing vasoplegia.
  • Hypocalcemia and hypophosphataemia may be contributing to poor cardiac contractility.
    • One would send a CMP and replace the relevant electrolytes

If one were to approach it like any shock, it would look like this:

  • Artifactual shock
    • Art line inappropriately zeroed
    • Wrong size NIBP cuff
  • Technical error
    • CVC is extravasating vasopressors
    • Vasopressor infusion was improperly prepared
  • Obstructive shock
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Tension pneumothorax
  • Distributive shock
    • Septic shock
    • Anaphylactic shock
    • Post-bypass vasoplegia
  • Hypovolemic shock
    • Haemorrhage
    • Inadequate fluid resuscitation

References

Rivers, Emanuel, et al. "Early goal-directed therapy in the treatment of severe sepsis and septic shock." New England Journal of Medicine 345.19 (2001): 1368-1377.

Jones, Alan E., et al. "The effect of a quantitative resuscitation strategy on mortality in patients with sepsis: a meta-analysis." Critical care medicine 36.10 (2008): 2734.

Kumar, Anand, et al. "Duration of hypotension before initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy is the critical determinant of survival in human septic shock*." Critical care medicine 34.6 (2006): 1589-1596.

Early Goal-Directed Therapy Collaborative Group of Zhejiang Province. "The effect of early goal-directed therapy on treatment of critical patients with severe sepsis/septic shock: A multi-center, prospective, randomized, controlled study." Zhongguo wei zhong bing ji jiu yi xue= Chinese critical care medicine= Zhongguo weizhongbing jijiuyixue 22.6 (2010): 331.

Yealy, Donald M., et al. "A randomized trial of protocol-based care for early septic shock." The New England journal of medicine 370.18 (2014): 1683-1693.

Power, GSarah, et al. "The Protocolised Management in Sepsis (ProMISe) trial statistical analysis plan." Critical Care and Resuscitation 15.4 (2013): 311.

Delaney, Anthony P., et al. "The Australasian Resuscitation in Sepsis Evaluation (ARISE) trial statistical analysis plan." Critical Care and Resuscitation 15.3 (2013): 162.

Marik, Paul E. "Early Management of Severe Sepsis: Concepts and Controversies." CHEST Journal 145.6 (2014): 1407-1418.

Peake, Sandra L., et al. "Goal-directed resuscitation for patients with early septic shock." The New England journal of medicine 371.16 (2014): 1496.

Yealy, Donald M., et al. "A randomized trial of protocol-based care for early septic shock." The New England journal of medicine 370.18 (2014): 1683-1693.

Question 18.1 - 2014, Paper 1

A 65-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with persisting chest pain for one week, following an acute severe episode that lasted for two hours. His 12-lead ECG, (ECG 1), taken on presentation to ED, is shown below.

a) Describe the ECG changes.

b) What is the most likely diagnosis?

The patient develops worsening chest pain and becomes more tachypnoeic and hypotensive.
c) Give two likely causes for this deterioration.

College Answer

a)
 Atrial fibrillation with a controlled ventricular response
 Right Bundle Branch Block
 Q-waves V1- V5 and which are wide
 Left axis deviation
 ST elevation anterior and inferior
 ST depression in aVL
b)
 Recent transmural anterior MI with resulting ventricular aneurysm
c)
 Aneurysm rupture
 Septal rupture causing a VSD
 Cardiac tamponade
 Papillary muscle rupture
 Re-infarction
 (Pulmonary embolus)

 

Discussion

The ECG above has been stolen shamelessly from Dr Smith's ECG Blog, where it is discussed in glorious detail. Obviously, one would find it difficult to reproduce the exact ECG which the college had in their paper. The one I have stolen is interpreted by Dr Smith in the following fashion:

There is RBBB, but without the usual rSR' in right precordial leads.  [There is some left axis deviation as well, probably a left anterior fascicular (hemi-) block.]  The initial r-wave is gone, so that there are QR-waves (diagnostic of myocardial infarction, whether old or acute).  There is ST elevation (which is never normal in RBBB).  The negative T-wave makes it very unlikely that this acute MI, but it could be either subacute or old. 

 

References

Question 18.2 - 2014, Paper 1

A 45-year-old male has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of syncope. He has a MET call for another syncopal episode. His 12 lead ECG is shown below (ECG 2).



a) Describe the ECG changes.
 
b) What is the most likely diagnosis?
 
c) What is the underlying pathophysiology?
 
d) List four clinical situations that can worsen this condition.

College Answer

a)
 Coved ST segment elevation V1 – V2 > 2 mm.
 Subsequent negative T wave in the same leads.
b)
 Brugada syndrome (Type 1).
c)
 A mutation in the cardiac sodium channel gene.
d)
 Fever.
 Myocardial ischaemia.
 Medications
o E.g. Flecainide, Amitriptyline, Lithium, Bupivacaine, Propofol, Alcohol.
 Hypokalaemia.
 Hypothermia.
 Cardioversion.

Discussion

The criteria for the diagnosis of Brugada syndrome as well as  are explored to a fascinating depth by Edward Burns in his article for LITFL. The time-poor exam candidate will be interested in only the answers to this question:

Clinical criteria:

  • Characteristic ECG changes
    • "Coved" ST elevation:  the QRS complex finishes high, and the ST-segment slopes diagonally to form an inverted T-wave in V1 and V2
    • Inverted T waves
  • Also, one of the following:
    • documented polymorphic VT or VF
    • Family history of sudden cardiac death before the age of 45
    • Characteristic ECG changes in family members
    • Syncope
    • Induceable VT
    • Nocturnal agonal respiration

Clinical situations which can worsen this condition:

  • Ischameia
  • Hyperthermia or hypothermia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Cardioversion
  • Drugs:
    • Class 1 antiarrhythmics
    • Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
    • Alpha-agonists
    • Nitrates
    • Cocaine and alcohol
    • Cholinergic agonists, eg. the "stigmine" drugs

References

Berne, Paola, and Josep Brugada. "Brugada syndrome 2012." Circulation Journal 76.7 (2012): 1563-1571.

Question 18.3 - 2014, Paper 1

A 75-year-old female admitted to the ICU with community-acquired pneumonia suddenly develops a tachycardia. Her 12 lead ECG is shown below (ECG 3).

a) What is the diagnosis? Justify your answer.
b) Name two co-existing diseases in critically ill patients where this condition is commonly seen.

College Answer

a)
 Multifocal atrial tachycardia
 Irregularly irregular rhythm rate > 100 bpm
 Multiple P wave morphologies

b)
 COPD
 Congestive cardiac failure

Discussion

The above-displayed ECG comes from the LITFL page on multifocal atrial tachycardia.

The cardinal features are irregularity and a plethora of different P-wave morphologies.

You need to have

  • Tachycardia (HR >100)
  • Irregular rate
  • Variability in P wave morphology

The same findings with a normal heart rate does not qualify for MAT, because it's not tachycardia; you have to call that a "wandering atrial pacemaker".

The CICM question also asked for associated diseases.  In adults, MAT is almost uniformly associated with COPD. Not only are the atria stretched by pulmonary hypertension, but the proarrhythmic bronchodilators also make for an irritable myocardium.  In the paediatric population the differentials are more broad, including bronchiolitis, croup, bronchomalacia, etc.

References

Bradley, David J. "Multifocal atrial tachycardia." DEVELOPMENTS IN CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICINE 257 (2006): 135.

LiPSON, MANUEL J., and SHAPUR NAIMI. "Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (Chaotic Atrial Tachycardia) Clinical Associations and Significance." Circulation 42.3 (1970): 397-407.

Question 23 - 2014, Paper 1

A 39-year-old female is admitted to a tertiary centre and intubated and ventilated for severe Legionella pneumonia. Two days after admission to ICU she remains profoundly hypoxaemic (PaO2/FiO2 = 55), despite optimising ventilatory support and appropriate antimicrobial therapy.

a) Outline the factors that would influence your decision whether or not to institute extra-corporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) in this patient.

b) Outline the relative merits of veno-venous (V-V) and veno-arterial (V-A) ECMO for this patient.

College Answer

a)
ECMO is indicated for potentially reversible life-threatening cardiac and/or respiratory failure unresponsive to conventional support, buying time for recovery from the underlying condition and specific treatment to take effect.
This patient meets criteria for ECMO with a potentially reversible condition (Legionella pneumonia) and P/F < 60 and age < 65 years.

Alternative treatment strategies
 Ensure all other strategies have been tried – (e.g. - recruitment manoeuvres, prone positioning, NO/inhaled prostacyclin, diuresis, etc.)
 Exclude easily treated reversible problem e.g. pneumothorax, mucous plugging
 Ensure optimisation of haemodynamics, consider measurement of adequacy of DO2
Exclude contra-indications / relative contra-indications – severe pre-existing organ dysfunction, presence of other severe co-morbidities e.g. advanced malignancy, co-existing irreversible lung/cardiac pathology, and presence of bleeding disorder.
Available resources – appropriate level of expertise with trained staff to insert catheters, set up, monitor and troubleshoot ECMO circuit, and adequate equipment.
(Reference to meeting unit/regional criteria for institution of ECMO, or similar, are an acceptable answer.)

b)
Choice of V-V or V-A ECMO will depend on co-existing cardiogenic shock. V-A ECMO provides complete cardio-respiratory support, whereas V-V ECMO only provides respiratory support. If profound septic shock with myocardial depression and EF<25%, V-A ECMO indicated. If adequate cardiac function then V-V ECMO indicated otherwise significant native blood pulmonary blood flow and cardiac output results in relatively hypoxic perfusion of upper body compared with lower half.
V-V ECMO also avoids risks of serious arterial injury, has less severe consequences in case or air or clot embolization, and as a low-pressure system may prolong circuit life.
Animal studies suggest preservation of pulmonary blood flow with V-V ECMO may improve recovery from lung sepsis compared with V-A ECMO.

Discussion

For a 10 mark question, this college model answer seems somewhat barren. One might expect at least a bit of a digression into ECMO. Applications of ECMO and literature regarding the use of ECMO are discussed elsewhere. In brief:

Indications for ECMO

In order to qualify for this level of critical care, one must be special in the following ways:

  • The condition must be reversible; OR the patient qualifies for a heart/lung transplant
  • The conventional management strategies have failed.

The following situations call for ECMO:

  • Cardiac arrest (in certain settings)
  • Failure to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Hypoxic respiratory failure
  • Hypercapneic respiratory failure

Contraindications for ECMO

  • Contraindications to anticoagulation: recent surgery, uncontrolled bleeding, intracranial haemorrhage
  • Irreversible condition
  • Contraindications for heart/lung transplant

Caveats to ECMO

Before subjecting a patient to such a perversely unnatural therapy, one ought to satisfy onself that every "conventional" strategy has failed. These include:

  • Recruitment manoeuvres
  • prone positioning
  • NO/inhaled prostacyclin
  • diuresis
  • Fluid resuscitation and optimised PEEP to improve V/Q matching

The latter point needs to be expanded. Often people with severe hypoxic respiratory failure are on a high PEEP, with the aim of recruiting more alveoli. Unfortunately this pressure is often transmitted to healthy lung regions which results in overdistension, and basically creates a large Zone 1 (of Wests' Zones). At the same time the blood flow which would have gone to these well-aerated regions will be distributed to collapsed lung regions, where the high PEEP does not reach -i.e. increasing shunt. The effect is of worsening hypoxia and hypercapnia with increasing PEEP ( a larger Zone 1 and a larger physiological dead space).. The solution is to reduce the PEEP and give some fluid boluses, so that the right heart can deliver blood into these previously poorly perfused lung regions.

Veno-venous vs veno-arterial ECMO

Each has advantages and disadvantages.

  • VA ECMO has the advantage of providing complete cardiorespiratory support, and is therefore applicable in patients with very poor cardiac function (LVEF less than 25%)
  • VA ECMO has the disadvantage of large-bore arterial puncture, which is a major problem. VV ECMO has less vascular access issues, but is only indicated for patients with good myocardial function.

In summary, the evidence:
 

These abovementioned rules are fairly elastic. Specifically, where it comes to concerns regarding vascular access complications, it is now unclear whether VA ECMO is truly more dangerous. Similarly, where it comes to severe haemodynamic compromise, it is unclear whether VV ECMO is truly pointless.

  • In neonatal respiratory failure, back in 1996, Knight et al found that the frequency of intravascular thrombosis was significantly lower in patients receiving venovenous ECMO, and that otherwise things which were felt to be contraindications (eg. severe cardiac failure) weren't real barriers to successful VV ECMO.
  • A 2000 review agreed with this in principle, but failed to discern any difference in the rate of complications in the neonatal/paediatric population.
  • A more recent 2015 conference abstract also failed to find any difference in complications among adults.

References

UpToDate has a nice summary chapter about ECMO.

The world is sustained by the guidelines published by ELSO (the Extracorporeal Life Support Organisation)

BARTLETT, ROBERT H., et al. "Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) in neonatal respiratory failure." Annals of surgery 204.3 (1986): 236-245.

Peek, Giles J., et al. "Efficacy and economic assessment of conventional ventilatory support versus extracorporeal membrane oxygenation for severe adult respiratory failure (CESAR): a multicentre randomised controlled trial." Lancet (London, England) 374.9698 (2009): 1351-1363.

Doll, Nicolas, et al. "Five-year results of 219 consecutive patients treated with extracorporeal membrane oxygenation for refractory postoperative cardiogenic shock.The Annals of thoracic surgery 77.1 (2004): 151-157.

De Waha, S., et al. "Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in refractory cardiogenic shock-the Leipzig ECMO registry." European Heart Journal 34.suppl 1 (2013): P4025.

Chen, Yih-Sharng, et al. "Analysis and results of prolonged resuscitation in cardiac arrest patients rescued by extracorporeal membrane oxygenation." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 41.2 (2003): 197-203.

Shin, Tae Gun, et al. "Extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation in patients with inhospital cardiac arrest: A comparison with conventional cardiopulmonary resuscitation*." Critical care medicine 39.1 (2011): 1-7.

Scanziani, Margherita, Leonello Avalli, and Roberto Fumagalli. "Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation Strategy in Cardiac Arrest." Resuscitation. Springer Milan, 2014. 109-117.

Davies, Andrew, et al. "Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation for 2009 influenza A (H1N1) acute respiratory distress syndrome." JAMA: the journal of the American Medical Association 302.17 (2009): 1888-1895.

Stub, Dion, et al. "Refractory cardiac arrest treated with mechanical CPR, hypothermia, ECMO and early reperfusion (the CHEER trial)." Resuscitation 86 (2015): 88-94.

Thourani, Vinod H., et al. "Venoarterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (VA-ECMO) in pediatric cardiac support." The Annals of thoracic surgery 82.1 (2006): 138-145.

Kolman, D., et al. "Clinical Outcomes In Patients With Advanced Cardiopulmonary Failure Who Were Treated With Either Veno-Arterial (va) Or Veno-Venous (vv) Extra-Corporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ecmo)." Am J Respir Crit Care Med 191 (2015): A4559.

Knight, Gail R., et al. "A comparison of venovenous and venoarterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in the treatment of neonatal respiratory failure." Critical care medicine 24.10 (1996): 1678-1683.

Zahraa, Jihad N., et al. "Venovenous versus venoarterial extracorporeal life support for pediatric respiratory failure: are there differences in survival and acute complications?." Critical care medicine 28.2 (2000): 521-525.

Kolman, D., et al. "Clinical Outcomes In Patients With Advanced Cardiopulmonary Failure Who Were Treated With Either Veno-Arterial (va) Or Veno-Venous (vv) Extra-Corporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ecmo)." Am J Respir Crit Care Med 191 (2015): A4559.

Bombino, Michela, Sara Redaelli, and Antonio Pesenti. "Newer indications for ECMO: pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, septic shock and trauma." ECMO-Extracorporeal Life Support in Adults. Springer Milan, 2014. 179-192.

Butt, W., and G. MacLaren. "Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation and sepsis." Crit Care Resusc 2007; 9: 76–80

Question 6.1 - 2014, paper 2

A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening shortness of breath. His ECG is shown below


 

a) Describe the main ECG abnormality?

b) What is the likely lesion?

c) What cardiac management is required?

College Answer

a) Deep symmetrical inverted T waves in V2-V4

b) Critical stenosis of the LAD

c)  Coronary angiography + / - stenting
 Anti-platelet therapy
 Anti-coagulation
 Beta-blockade
 ACE inhibitor
 Statin

Discussion

The image above, depicting the  "Wellens WellenSign", was shamelessly stolen from Dr Leonard Gettes' excellent site. Not a great deal more to say there, really. Even a person unfamiliar with the eponymous sign will write "myocardial ischaemia" and receive marks (though less of them).

References

Question 6.2 - 2014, paper 2

A 25-year-old male presents to hospital with atypical chest pain. His ECG is shown below

a) Describe the ECG abnormalities?

b) What are the most likely differentials in this patient for these ECG changes?

College Answer

a)  Widespread concave ST elevation, most prominent in the mid- to left precordial leads (V2-5)
 Notching or slurring at the J-point
 Prominent, slightly asymmetrical T-waves that are concordant with the QRS complexes

b) Pericarditis
 Benign early replolarisation

Discussion

The image above, depicting some pericarditis-like changes, was shamelessly stolen from an excellent LITFL page on pericarditis.

Generally speaking, ECG changes associated with acute pericarditis are diffuse ST segment elevation and PR interval depression.

These changes frequently mimic acute myocardial infarction. Also early repolarisation can look exactly like this. The latter is a stable lifelong appearance, whereas both of the former are evolving pathologies; one might be able to confidently say that serial ECGs will discriminate between them. Additionally, various authors have identified some sophisticated methods by means of which one might be able to tell the difference.

References


Marinella, MARK A. "Electrocardiographic manifestations and differential diagnosis of acute pericarditis." American family physician 57.4 (1998): 699-704.


Ginzton, LEONARD E., and MICHAEL M.  Laks. "The differential diagnosis of acute pericarditis from the normal variant: new electrocardiographic criteria." Circulation 65.5 (1982): 1004-1009.
 

Question 6.3 - 2014, paper 2

A 50-year-old female presents to hospital having been involved in a motor vehicle crash. She was the driver and was trapped by the legs requiring extrication.

a) Describe the ECG changes?

b) What is the explanation for the ECG changes?

c) What is the immediate pharmacological management?

College Answer

a)  Broad complex rhythm, not typical of a BBB pattern.
     Left axis deviation
     Absent P waves

b)  Hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis

c)  Intravenous calcium
    Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
    Salbutamol / dextrose-insulin

Discussion

The image above was shamelessly stolen from an excellent LITFL page on ECG chages in hyperkalemia.

References

Question 11 - 2014, paper 2

a) What are short-latency (N20) somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)?

b) Describe how SSEPs can be used for prognostication in patients with hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury.

c) Explain whether, and if so how, induced hypothermia impacts on the validity of SSEP results.

College Answer

a)
 Evoked potentials are the electrical signals generated by the nervous system in response to sensory stimuli.
 Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs) consist of a series of waves that reflect sequential activation of neural structures along the somatosensory pathways.
 Somatosensory evoked potentials are usually derived from the median nerve and the tibial nerve
 SSEP components typically are named by their polarity and typical peak latency in the normalb population. N20 is a negativity that typically peaks at 20 milliseconds after the stimulus.

b)
 SSEP is the most reliable test to predict poor outcome in this patient group.
 SSEP does not predict good outcome.
 Pre-test probability for poor outcome essential: use test only in patients who remain unconscious following hypoxic-ischaemic insult (M score ≤ 3).
 Validated to use as early as 24 hours after cardiac arrest.
 SSEP not influenced by sedatives, analgesics, paralysing agents or metabolic insults.
 Bilaterally absent short latency peaks (N20 peaks) have 100% predictive value for poor outcome
(death or severe disability), with false positive rate nearly 0% and narrow confidence intervals.

c)
 Hypothermia affects SSEP test results: mainly delayed peaks (prolongation conduction times);no consistent effect on voltages (amplitudes).
 After rewarming of the patient SSEPs have comparable test characteristics as compared with studies done before therapeutic hypothermia and as such have been validated for prognostication following hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury after rewarming with similar low false positive rate.

Discussion

Rationale for the use of somatosensory evoked potentials in the comatose survivor of cardiac arrest

  • Peripheral nerve stimulation should evoke a central response even in the presence of sedation or hypothermia
  • The absence of such a response suggests severe damage to the cortex
  • Bilateral absence of response suggests global rather than focal damage
  • Ergo, SSEP should act as sensitive diagnostic tool to detect severe brain injury after cardiac arrest

Practice of somatosensory stimulation and evoked potential measurement

  • Both median nerves are stimulated at the wrist with a bipolar surface electrode
  • Alternative site is the tibial nerve
  • Stimulus repeats at 2-5 Hz, with a duration of 0.2msec
  • Surface electrodes read cortical activity at the scalp
  • Evoked potentials are peaks of electrical activity which follow the peripheral stimulus with a predictable latency.
  • The responses are named after their polarity (N for negative, P for positive) and their latency.
  • N20 indicates a negative response over primary somatosensory cortex at ∼20 ms post stimulation.

Advantages of somatosensory evoked potentials

  • Non-invasive
  • Portable
  • Less confounded by sedation or hypothermia than EEG (in fact, not influenced by sedatives, analgesics, paralysing agents or metabolic insults)
  • Bilaterally absent N20 SSEP during hypothermia is a good predictor for absent N20 SSEP after rewarming, which means you can do SSEPs during the period of hypothermia (Bouwes et al, 2010)
  • Reproduceable
  • Interpretation is guided by specific criteria, rather than subjective expertise.

Evidence supporting the prognostic value of SSEPs

  • Bilaterally absent short latency peaks (N20 peaks) have 100% predictive value for poor outcome (death or severe disability), with false positive rate nearly 0% and narrow confidence intervals.
  • Recent (2014) consensus statement on prognostication following cardiac arrest suggested that SSEPs are prognostic at > 72 hours in cooled patients and at >24 hours in non-cooled patients
  • Among a total 287 patients with bilaterally absent N20 SSEPs, only one was a false positive result (Young et al, 2005)
  • Post hoc analysis by independent interpreters has suggested that the false positive was simply interpreted inaccurately in the first instance.

References

Guérit, J-M., et al. "Consensus on the use of neurophysiological tests in the intensive care unit (ICU): electroencephalogram (EEG), evoked potentials (EP), and electroneuromyography (ENMG)." Neurophysiologie Clinique/Clinical Neurophysiology 39.2 (2009): 71-83.

Tjepkema-Cloostermans, Marleen Catharina, J. Horn, and M. J. A. M. Putten. "The SSEP on the ICU: Current applications and pitfalls." Netherlands journal of critical care 17.1 (2013): 5-9.

Question 17.1 - 2014, paper 2

With reference to transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) in the critically ill:

a) Outline the potential uses of TTE in the management of a patient in cardiac arrest.

b) Which TTE view is the most appropriate to use during cardiac arrest resuscitation?

College Answer

a)
1) enable rapid diagnosis of potentially treatable causes of cardiac arrest e.g. PE, tamponade, hypovolaemia
2) guide interventions undertaken during cardiac arrest e.g. guide needle placement for
pericardiocentesis
3) assess response to therapy e.g. IVC diameter post fluid bolus in hypovolaemia

b)
Subcostal view (below the xiphoid sternum) – can be done without interfering with CPR.

Discussion

Which is the most appropriate view? Plainly the subcostal view; it would be insane to interfere with CPR by trying to shove the probe on the chest.

Rationale for the use of TTE during an arrest

  • Cardiac arrest is caused by numerous aetiologies, of which only a few can be diagnosed by virtue of rhythm analysis or history and examination.
  • Many of the "non-shockable" causes of cardiac arrest can be identified or confirmed by TTE, including the following:
    • Cardiac tamponade (RV collapse in systole, large effusion)
    • Massive PE (RV diltation, empty LV, D-shaped septum)
    • Hypovolemia (empty chambers, collapsed IVC)
    • Tension pneumothorax (chest US rather than cardiac echo)
  • Other basic tools of assessment are already in routine use (eg. SpO2 monitoring and EtCO2 monitoring)

Advantages of intra-arrest TTE

  • Non-invasive
  • More effective in determining cardiac activity than palpation of central pulses
  • May be effective in identifying a shockable rhythm when the ECG is impossible or unhelpful
  • Allows US guidance of remedial procedures, eg. pericardiocentesis
  • Allows real-time monitoring of the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation
  • Allows the identification of regional wall motion abnormalities during periods of ROSC, which might result in an earlier decision to proceed with angiography
  • Non-experts can be easily trained to perform brief focused TTE.

Disadvantages of intra-arrest TTE

  • Intrudes upon team attention (it is another screen to mindlessly watch)
  • Takes focus off resuscitation
  • Requires significant skill to perform
  • Images may be of poor quality in many circumstances
  • Uninformative images may be misinterpreted and inaccurate management decisions could be made.
  • So far, there has been no evidence of improved outcome
  • It may result in an unacceptable interruption to CPR. in't Veld et al (2017) and Clattenburg et al (2018) found that the use of ultrasound prolonged off-the-chest pauses from an average of 11 seconds to 17 seconds, with the additional six seconds being wasted on image acquisition. Most interestingly, the ultrasonography pause was longer when the operator was also leading the arrest. 

Evidence and consensus guidelines regarding intra-arrest TTE

  • Memtsoudis et al (2006) - 22 of non-cardiac surgical patients who had an unexpected cardiac arrest; the use of TOE in the operating theatre was evaluated. Of the 22, 18 had major changes made to their management on the basis of TOE findings. In-hospital survival was 32%.
  • Blyth et al (2012) - meta-analysis of TTE as predictor of survival in cardiac arrest. 11 papers with a total of 558 patients were included. Intra-arrest TTE which demonstrated cardiac inactivity was strongly associated with the inability to restore spontaneous circulation. There was also a small, nonzero chance of ROSC with a motionless heart: 2.4% of patients with a motionless left ventricular wall would go on to achieve ROSC.. Pooled sensitivity was 91% and specificity was 80%. Research such as this is frustrated by unclear methodology: was the TTE performed in the first minute of CPR, or in the fortieth minute? Most people would agree that there is a difference in the way you would interpret the findings.
  • Anderson et al (2014) - swine model of cardiac arrest; ultrasound-guided compressions improved coronary perfusion pressure, because the rescuers were able to see how well (or poorly) they were compressing the left ventricle.
  • Flato et al (2015) - observational cohort of 49 ICU patients. TTE changed management in 51% and there was a surprising number of "pulseless" patients who actually had cardiac activity on TTE. These patients actually had a much better rate of ROSC (~70%) in comparison to the truly pulseless patients who had no cardiac motility (who had ROSC rates of around 20%). The authors concluded that intra-arrest TTE can identify potentially salvageable patients.

Support for this practice among published  guidelines

  • ARC Guideline 11.6 (2010) gives a Class B recommendation to the use of ultrasound in cardiac arrest, but on the basis of weak (Level IV) evidence.
  • Intensive Care Society recommends "Focused Intensive Care Echo"(FICE) to be among the basic competencies for intensivists.
  • ASEP/ASE consensus statement (2010)  recommends FOCUS ( focused cardiac ultrasound ) in a complimentary diagnostic role.
  • ILCOR (2015) demur making any recommendation, saying that it "may be considered" as an adjunct only where "a qualified sonographer is present and use of ultrasound does not interfere" with CPR.

References

Price, Susanna, Shahana Uddin, and Tom Quinn. "Echocardiography in cardiac arrest." Current opinion in critical care 16.3 (2010): 211-215.
Zafiropoulos, Andreas, et al. "Critical Care Echo Rounds: Echo in cardiac arrest." Echo Research and Practice 1.2 (2014): D15-D21.

Flato, Uri Adrian Prync, et al. "Echocardiography for prognostication during the resuscitation of intensive care unit patients with non-shockable rhythm cardiac arrest." Resuscitation 92 (2015): 1-6.

Anderson, Kenton L., et al. "Ultrasound Guided Chest Compressions Over the Left Ventricle During Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation Increases Coronary Perfusion Pressure and Return of Spontaneous Circulation in a Swine Model of Traumatic Cardiac Arrest." Circulation 130.Suppl 2 (2014): A15853-A15853.
Memtsoudis, Stavros G., et al. "The usefulness of transesophageal echocardiography during intraoperative cardiac arrest in noncardiac surgery." Anesthesia & Analgesia 102.6 (2006): 1653-1657.

Blyth, Lacey, et al. "Bedside focused echocardiography as predictor of survival in cardiac arrest patients: a systematic review." Academic Emergency Medicine 19.10 (2012): 1119-1126.

Labovitz, Arthur J., et al. "Focused cardiac ultrasound in the emergent setting: a consensus statement of the American Society of Echocardiography and American College of Emergency Physicians." Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography 23.12 (2010):

in't Veld, Maite A. Huis, et al. "Ultrasound use during cardiopulmonary resuscitation is associated with delays in chest compressions." Resuscitation 119 (2017): 95-98.

Clattenburg, Eben J., et al. "Point-of-care ultrasound use in patients with cardiac arrest is associated prolonged cardiopulmonary resuscitation pauses: a prospective cohort study." Resuscitation 122 (2018): 65-68.

Michels, Guido, and Roman Pfister. "Point-of-care ultrasound use in patients with cardiac arrest: More harmful than useful?." Resuscitation 124 (2018): e21.

Atkinson, Paul R., et al. "Does Point-of-care Ultrasound Use Impact Resuscitation Length, Rates of Intervention, and Clinical Outcomes During Cardiac Arrest? A Study from the Sonography in Hypotension and Cardiac Arrest in the Emergency Department (SHoC-ED) Investigators." Cureus 11.4 (2019).

Question 17.2 - 2014, paper 2

With reference to transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) in the critically ill:

The four images shown on pages 4 and 5 are TTE images taken from two patients during resuscitation from cardiac arrest.

Figures 1a and 1b are from patient 1 (shown on page 4). Figures 2a and 2b are from patient 2 (shown on page 5).

For each TTE image:

i. Describe the main abnormalities.

ii. Give the underlying diagnosis.

College Answer

For Patient 1
1) Very large pericardial effusion
2) Right ventricular compression.
Cardiac tamponade

For Patient 2
1) Grossly dilated right ventricle (and atrium in fig 4)
2) D-shaped septum
3) Underfilled left heart
Massive pulmonary embolus

Discussion

The TTE stills depicted above are not the canonical CICM paper images; instead I have scraped them together from various Google searches, from authors who have tagged them as "labelled for reuse".

The images are easily recognisable and I will not expand on this beyond wat is said in the college answer and explained in the chapter on peri-arrest TTE.

References

Price, Susanna, Shahana Uddin, and Tom Quinn. "Echocardiography in cardiac arrest." Current opinion in critical care 16.3 (2010): 211-215.


Zafiropoulos, Andreas, et al. "Critical Care Echo Rounds: Echo in cardiac arrest." Echo Research and Practice 1.2 (2014): D15-D21.

Flato, Uri Adrian Prync, et al. "Echocardiography for prognostication during the resuscitation of intensive care unit patients with non-shockable rhythm cardiac arrest." Resuscitation 92 (2015): 1-6.

Anderson, Kenton L., et al. "Ultrasound Guided Chest Compressions Over the Left Ventricle During Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation Increases Coronary Perfusion Pressure and Return of Spontaneous Circulation in a Swine Model of Traumatic Cardiac Arrest." Circulation 130.Suppl 2 (2014): A15853-A15853.
Memtsoudis, Stavros G., et al. "The usefulness of transesophageal echocardiography during intraoperative cardiac arrest in noncardiac surgery." Anesthesia & Analgesia 102.6 (2006): 1653-1657.

Blyth, Lacey, et al. "Bedside focused echocardiography as predictor of survival in cardiac arrest patients: a systematic review." Academic Emergency Medicine 19.10 (2012): 1119-1126.

Labovitz, Arthur J., et al. "Focused cardiac ultrasound in the emergent setting: a consensus statement of the American Society of Echocardiography and American College of Emergency Physicians." Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography 23.12 (2010):

Question 6 - 2015, Paper 1

Outline the key issues in the management of acute right ventricular failure in an ICU patient with moderate to severe pulmonary hypertension.

College Answer

Goal / Principle Additional detail to be provided
Treat triggering factors Infection, anaemia, arrhythmias, comorbidities, PE,
MI, acidosis
Maintain oxygenation Supplemental Oxygen to maintain sats >90%
Avoid Intubation if possible.
Consider Echo +/ - PA Catheter risks
Establish adequate
monitoring
ECG, Arterial line, Oxygen Sats, CVP,
Echocardiography vs PA Catheter
Kidney function: Urine Catheter, Serum Creatinine,
Liver congestion: AST, ALT, Bilirubin, Lactate
Optimise fluid balance Fluids if hypovolaemia is present , diuretics if excess fluid is
present
Reduce RV afterload IV Prostanoids: Epoprostinil, iloprost
IV or Oral PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil)
Inhaled vasodilators (nitric oxide)
Endothelin receptor antagonists (ERAs) eg bosantan
Optimise Cardiac output Milrinone, Levosimendan,
Optimise Systemic
perfusion pressure
Norepinephrine or Vasopressin
Liaison with Pulmonary
Hypertension Centre
Surgical options: Pulmonary thrombendarterectomy /
balloon atrial septostomy / ECMO / Ventricular assist device /
Heart/lung transplant / Palliation

Additional comments:
Candidates who scored well showed an in-depth understanding of the applied physiology and consequences of the various therapeutic options. Candidates who scored poorly omitted key points.
 

Discussion

A reader has pointed out an excellent review article by Hoeper et al (2018) which covers this in some detail. 

Management of preload

  • Diuretics
  • Fluid restriction
  • Venodilators
  • Aldosterone antagonists
  • Beta-blockers
  • Maintenance of sinus rhythm and atrial systolic contribution
  • Pacing to maintain AV synchrony

Management of afterload

  • Normoxia
  • Normocapnea
  • Normal acid-base balance (especially avoidance of acidosis)
  • Avoidance of excessive positive respiratory pressures
  • Pulmonary vasodilators
    • Nitric oxide
    • Prostacycline

Increase contractility

  • Inotropes
    • Digoxin
    • Dobutamine
    • Milrinone
    • Levosimendan
  • Cardiac resychronisation
  • Supportive hormones and micronutrients (cortisol, insulin, calcium, glucagon, thyroxine, thiamine etc)

Increase cardiac output by unnatural means:

  • LVAD
  • ECMO (eg. VA ECMO or PA-LA support)
  • Increase the pacemaker rate

Decrease the organism's demand for cardiac output

  • Hypothermia
  • Paralysis/sedation

References

Hoeper, Marius M., et al. "Intensive care, right ventricular support and lung transplantation in patients with pulmonary hypertension." European Respiratory Journal 53.1 (2019).

Lahm, Tim, et al. "Medical and surgical treatment of acute right ventricular failure." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 56.18 (2010): 1435-1446.

Balanos, George M., et al. "Human pulmonary vascular response to 4 h of hypercapnia and hypocapnia measured using Doppler echocardiography." Journal of Applied Physiology 94.4 (2003): 1543-1551.

Griffiths, Mark JD, and Timothy W. Evans. "Inhaled nitric oxide therapy in adults." New England Journal of Medicine 353.25 (2005): 2683-2695.

Benedetto, Maria, et al. "Inhaled nitric oxide in cardiac surgery: Evidence or tradition?." Nitric Oxide 49 (2015): 67-79.

Question 9 - 2015, Paper 1

Critically evaluate the use of therapeutic hypothermia in intensive care practice.

College Answer

Maintenance of a target temperature to provide neuroprotection. A range of different temperatures employed with ‘mild hypothermia’ traditionally 32-34oC; more recently 36oC post TTM trial.

Rationale:

Hypothermia may lessen the brain injury through a number of mechanisms:

  • Cerebral metabolic rate decreases by ~6-10% per degree Celcius drop in temperature
  • Reduced release of excitatory amino acids / glutamate which mediate neuronal injury
  • Reduced ischaemia reperfusion induced reactive oxygen species release
  • Reduced inflammation – both cellular response and cytokine expression
  • Reduced apoptosis
  • Preservation of blood brain barrier (reduced NO, aquaporin 4, metallo-proteinases)

Clinical utility and evidence:

Post cardiac arrest:

  • Standard of care
  • HACA and Bernard studies in 2002 cooled VF/VT patients to 32-34 for 12-24 hrs.
  • TTM trial 2013 showed no difference between target 33 and 36 in patients with out of hospital arrest of presumed cardiac cause. Fever avoided for 72 hrs in TTM.
  • Current ARC/ILCOR guideline remains 32-34 but either approach reasonable.
  • Avoidance of hyperthermia may be more important than hypothermia.
  • ILCOR draft guidelines for 2015 recommend 32-36 for all arrests with unresponsiveness post ROSC for 24 hours (weak recommendation, very low quality evidence.)
  • Prehospital cooling with crystalloid confers no benefit with increased APO
  • Studies that suggest benefit of TTM in patients with cardiac arrest post hanging
  • HYPERION trial underway to evaluate TTM 32.5 – 33.5 in non-shockable cardiac arrest survivors

Traumatic brain injury:

  • Multiple studies have looked at TH to treat severe TBI i.e. prophylaxis.
  • Meta-analysis of trials spanning over 20 yrs suggests a beneficial effect on mortality and favourable outcome.
  • When limited to higher quality trials no significant mortality benefit.
  • BTF guidelines level III recommendation for prophylactic hypothermia with no significant decrease in mortality but association with higher GOS
  • Cooling associated with lower ICP and higher incidence of pneumonia
  • Most trials using 32-35 degrees for at least 48 hrs
  • POLAR awaited – TH for severe TBI
  • Eurotherm 3235 awaited – TH for Intracranial hypertension
  • TH commonly used to treat intracranial hypertension rather than as prophylaxis.
  • Contemporary data evaluating this practice is lacking
 

Other potential uses

Hepatic encephalopathy

  • Intracranial hypertension common in grade III/IV encephalopathy related to ALF
  • Some advocate cooling as a treatment of strategy to manage intracranial HT
  • Controversial
  • No RCTs

Meningitis

  • Evidence of potential harm

Stroke

  • Fever associated with two-fold risk of death after haemorrhagic or ischaemic stroke
  • Pharmacologic methods of fever control have not shown improved outcome
  • NINDS and European (EuroHYP-1) funded trials looking at induced hypothermia underway

Seizures

  • Case reports with HYBERNATUS trial underway evaluating TH for refractory SE

SAH

  • No good data to support the use of TH in SAH.
  • Small studies have looked at TH in patients with intracranial HT
  • Fever associated with worse outcomes

Neonatal encephalopathy

  • Results of RCTs recommend cooling 33-34 for 72hr

Adverse effects:

  • Bradycardia / Arrhythmias
  • Increased SVR and venous return with cold diuresis
  • Hypokalaemia during cooling and rebound hyperkalaemia during rewarming
  • Immunosuppression / infectious Complications
  • Coagulopathy
  • Altered drug metabolism / reduced clearance sedative drugs
  • Requirement for sedation +/- paralysis
  • Concern regarding rebound intracranial hypertension during warming phase
  • Challenge of achieving and maintaining target temperature

Practice:

  • Reasonable statement of candidates practice re TH

Additional comments:
Candidates  mentioned  detail  that  was  not  requested,  such  as  methods of  cooling.  Candidates also showed poor breadth of knowledge related to the potential use of hypothermia in conditions such as TBI / SAH / CVA.

Discussion

Rationale for therapeutic hypothermia:

  • Therapeutic hypothermia has been advanced a a means of improving survival and good neurological outcome following cardiac arrest.
  • It has also been offered as a means of controlling intracranial hypertension which is refractory to other modalities.
  • Therapeutic hypothermia modulates the activity of body proteins and electrolytes.
  • This modulation is thought to have some beneficial effects in scenarios where inflammatory damage is anticipated.
  • This also involves the down-modulation of the overall metabolic rate, which decreases the metabolic demands of the organism in situations where supply of metabolic substrate may be compromised.
  • Decrease in oxygen consumption matches decreased demand with decreased supply in "penumbra" areas, at the watersheds, where hypoxic injury has caused oedema.\

Advantages of therapeutic hypothermia

  • Decreased granulocyte migration into tissue
  • Decreased cerebral oedema
  • Intrinsic anticonvulsant effects of hypothermia

Well-accepted indications:

Evidence for use in cardiac arrest: 

Evidence for use in traumatic brain injury

  • EUROTHERM 3235 trial (2015): 387 patients; hypothermia was used as a second-line therapy to reduce ICP.
  • No survival benefit was observed.
  • Recruitment was suspended early owing to safety concerns.
  • ICP control was in fact better in the hypothermia group (they required rescue therapies less frequently)
  • The meta-analysis mentioned by the college is possibly  this 2013 review by Georgiou et al; except there was no benefit in mortality when only high quality trial were included.

Extended indications:

Therapeutic hypothermia in cooling of a hyperthermic patient

  • Hyperthermia is associated with substantial harm, particularly if the temperature increases beyod 41°C
  • Causes of such hyperthermia may be numerous, including sepsis, malignant hyperthermia, anticholinergic drug poisoning, heat stroke, and so on and so forth.
  • In brief, these causes all have specific management strategies which may take time to work.
  • In the interim, the temperature must be managed, so that organ damage does not occur
  • Induction of hypothermia (or maintenance of controlled normothermia) by cooling the patient can be viewed as one of the indications.

Therapeutic hypothermia for subarachnoid haemorrhage

  • Theoretically, TH may be protective in SAH in the same way that it is supposed to be protective in traumatic brain injury. Areas affected by ischaemia in the context of vasospasm may benefit from having a lower metabolic rate.
  • TH certainly  seems to decrease the flow velocity in the MCA of subarachnoid haemorrhage patients (Seule et al, 2014), suggesting that the metabolic rate is indeed affected enough to influence cerebral blood flow.
  • Animal studies have also demonstrated that hypothermia reverses vasospasm (in rats)
  • In patients with "poor-grade" SAH, good functional outcome was achieved in 48% with the combination of barbiturate coma and hypothermia to 33-34°C (Gasser et al, 2003)
  • A more recent case series (Seule et al, 2010) found good outcomes in 57% of  severe SAH patients who developed vasospasm.
  • In contrast, Karnatovskaia et al (2014) found no difference in neurological outcome within their case series.
  • No recommendation in favour of this use of TH can be made with a straight face.

Therapeutic hypothermia for super-refractory status epilepticus

  • Hypothermia is known to have antiepileptic effects.
  • Case series (eg. Corry et al, 2008) have demonstrated its feasibility in humans (target temperature: 31–35°C)
  • Neurocritical care society guidelines for status epilepticus (Brophy et al, 2012) identified only 4 articles in the literature, and were unable to make very strong recommendations.
  • The HYBERNATUS trial mentioned in the college answer is apparently ongoing, but no longer recruiting participants.

Therapeutic hypothermia for severe sepsis

  • Anti-inflammatory effects of hypothermia were studied in an animal model of severe sepsis (Kwang et al, 2012).
  • The hypothermic rats (30–32 °C) did better in terms of acute lung and liver injury.
  • Human applications of this are limited by concern that ...firstly, a fever is an antibacterial physiological response, and secondly, that the haemodynamic instability of septic shock will be exacerbated by hypothermia.

Therapeutic hypothermia for meningitis

  • Evidence of potential harm mentioned by the college in their answer was found by a 2013 RCT (Mourvillier et al). The investigators found a higher mortality in the hypothermia group.

Therapeutic hypothermia for neonatal asphyxia

  • Following on from the success of TH in adult cardiac arrest, this modality has been applied to neonatal hypoxic-ischaemic encephalpathy.
  • Shankaran et al (2005) performed an RCT; the group of neonates who were cooled 33.5°C for 72 hours; the rate of cerebral palsy was reduced from 19% to 15%, and mortality improved from 37% to 24%. In the long term, there was no increase in disability among hypothermia-exposed survivors when compared to surviving controls (Shankaran et al, 2012)
  • TOBY trial (2014) confirmed that both survival and neurological outcome is improved

Therapeutic hypothermia for stroke

  • The college answer points out that fever is associated with two-fold risk of death after haemorrhagic or ischaemic stroke. Pharmacologic methods of fever control have not shown improved outcome in stroke.
  • In animal models of stroke, , mild or moderate hypothermia has been shown to decrease infarct size and lead to functional improvement when cooling was initiated within a few hours of ischemia onset (Clark et al, 2008). But... These were rats, and they were cooled to 24°C

Therapeutic hypothermia for acute hepatic encephalopathy

  • This use of TH is an extension of the observation that TH reduces cerebral oedema in patients with traumatic brain injury.
  • Some authors (Stravitz et al, 2008) have suggested that TH may be an effective bridge to liver transplant.
  • Human case series support this assertion (Jalan et al, 1999); during their treatment there was no significant relapse of increased intracranial pressure.
  • There are no RCTs, but a large-scale retrospective cohort (Karvellas et al, 2014) did not find any survival benefit.

Therapeutic hypothermia in ARDS :

  • Recent studies (Zhicheng et al, 2012) have confirmed that mild hypothermia improves gas exchange, lung compliance, duration of ventilation and the levels of IL-6 in local lung tissue.
  • Of particular interest is the use of hypothermia to reduce the whole-body oxygen demand in situations where even veno-venous ECMO is powerless to oxygenate the patient (Hayek et al, 2015)

Intraoperative therapeutic hypothermia

  • Cardiothoracic surgery, routinely in use (including DHCA).
  • Neurosurgery for aneurysm clipping: IHAST trial, 2005; no benefit ("good-grade" SAH patients)
  • Vascular surgery, to protect the spinal cord during prolonged aortic cross-clamp

Suspended animation for delayed resuscitation

  • In essence, this is a practice of stopping the circulation with deep hypothrmia, so as to buy time to the definitive management of the cause of the cardiac arrest.
  • Animal studies have demonstrated success with up to 90 minutes of no-flow (Safar et al, 2002)
  • Wu et al (2006) subjected dogs to rapid haemorrhage, and then used a 2°C saline aortic flush to achieve a brain temperature of 10°C. The dogs remained on ice for 2 hours, and were then revived on cardiopulmonary bypass.  Intact neurological outcome was achieved in 4 out of 6 dogs.

References

Andrews, Peter JD, et al. "Hypothermia for intracranial hypertension after traumatic brain injury." New England Journal of Medicine 373.25 (2015): 2403-2412.

Georgiou, A. P., and A. R. Manara. "Role of therapeutic hypothermia in improving outcome after traumatic brain injury: a systematic review." British journal of anaesthesia (2013): aes500.

Polderman, Kees H. "Application of therapeutic hypothermia in the ICU: opportunities and pitfalls of a promising treatment modality. Part 1: Indications and evidence." Intensive care medicine 30.4 (2004): 556-575.

Seule, M., et al. "Therapeutic hypothermia reduces middle cerebral artery flow velocity in patients with severe aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage." Neurocritical care 20.2 (2014): 255-262.

Gasser, Stefan, et al. "Long‐Term Hypothermia in Patients with Severe Brain Edema After Poor‐Grade Subarachnoid Hemorrhage Feasibility and Intensive Care Complications." Journal of neurosurgical anesthesiology 15.3 (2003): 240-248.

Karnatovskaia, Lioudmila V., et al. "Effect of prolonged therapeutic hypothermia on intracranial pressure, organ function, and hospital outcomes among patients with aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage." Neurocritical care 21.3 (2014): 451-461.

Kim, Jong Youl, and Midori A. Yenari. "Hypothermia for treatment of stroke." Brain Circulation 1.1 (2015): 14.

Todd MM, Hindman BJ, Clarke WR, Torner JC; Intraoperative Hypothermia for Aneurysm Surgery Trial (IHAST) Investigators. Mild intraoperative hypothermia during surgery for intracranial aneurysm. N Engl J Med 2005;352:135-45.

Clark, Darren L., et al. "Comparison of 12, 24 and 48 h of systemic hypothermia on outcome after permanent focal ischemia in rat." Experimental neurology 212.2 (2008): 386-392.

Shankaran, Seetha, et al. "Whole-body hypothermia for neonates with hypoxic–ischemic encephalopathy." New England Journal of Medicine 353.15 (2005): 1574-1584.

Shankaran, Seetha, et al. "Childhood outcomes after hypothermia for neonatal encephalopathy." New England Journal of Medicine 366.22 (2012): 2085-2092.

Azzopardi, Denis, et al. "Effects of hypothermia for perinatal asphyxia on childhood outcomes." New England Journal of Medicine 371.2 (2014): 140-149.

Mourvillier, Bruno, et al. "Induced hypothermia in severe bacterial meningitis: a randomized clinical trial." JAMA 310.20 (2013): 2174-2183.

Rim, Kwang Pil, et al. "Effect of therapeutic hypothermia according to severity of sepsis in a septic rat model." Cytokine 60.3 (2012): 755-761.

Corry, Jesse J., et al. "Hypothermia for refractory status epilepticus." Neurocritical care 9.2 (2008): 189-197.

Villar, Jesus, and Arthur S. Slutsky. "Effects of induced hypothermia in patients with septic adult respiratory distress syndrome." Resuscitation 26.2 (1993): 183-192.

White, H. D., C. D. Spradley, and A. Hayek. "Therapeutic Hypothermia For Refractory Hypoxia In Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome Undergoing Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation." Am J Respir Crit Care Med 191 (2015): A4570.

Zhicheng, Fang, et al. "Effect of mild hypothermia treatment on mechanical ventilation of acute respiratory distress syndrome." Modern Journal of Integrated Traditional Chinese and Western Medicine 29 (2012): 002.

Stravitz, R. Todd, et al. "Therapeutic hypothermia for acute liver failure: toward a randomized, controlled trial in patients with advanced hepatic encephalopathy." Neurocritical care 9.1 (2008): 90-96.

Jalan, Rajiv, et al. "Moderate hypothermia for uncontrolled intracranial hypertension in acute liver failure." The Lancet 354.9185 (1999): 1164-1168.

Karvellas, C., et al. "A multicenter retrospective cohort analysis of therapeutic hypothermia in acute liver failure." Critical Care 18.Suppl 1 (2014): P200.

Wu, Xianren, et al. "Induction of profound hypothermia for emergency preservation and resuscitation allows intact survival after cardiac arrest resulting from prolonged lethal hemorrhage and trauma in dogs." Circulation 113.16 (2006): 1974-1982.

Question 20 - 2015, Paper 1

Briefly discuss the information (including clinical features / investigations) that may help determine the prognosis of patients following cardiac arrest.

College Answer
 

Prognostication after cardiac arrest may be very difficult and involve a number of modalities.

It involves consideration of:

History

  • Underlying cause of the arrest
  • Co-morbidities
  • Use of therapeutic hypothermia
  • Features of the arrest – down time, CPR, ROSC

Clinical assessment

Timing:
Neurological assessment timing will be determined by the use of therapeutic hypothermia and the duration and type of medication for sedation but is most reliably performed day 3 without therapeutic hypothermia – probably day 5 with TH. Suggestion is to wait 72 hours after return of normothermia.
With new TTM trial suggesting 36C then 72 hours post arrest may again be appropriate.
 

Examination:
Clinical – off sedation and neuromuscular blocking agents
Cranial nerve abnormalities – absence of pupillary response and corneal reflexes are bad prognostic indicators.
Best Motor response at 72 hours with absent or extensor response associated with poor outcome.
Status / Generalised and repetitive myoclonus (as opposed to sporadic myoclonus)

Biochemical parameters

  • Neurone specific enolase >33mcg/L at days 1-3 indicates poor outcome
  • S100, CSF CKBB not accurate enough for prognostication

Electrophysiological features

EEG: generalised suppression, burst suppression or generalised periodic complexes strongly associated with poor outcome.
SSEPs: Bilateral absence of N20 component of SSEP with median nerve stimulation within 1-3 days is strongly associated with poor outcome.

Imaging

 CT appearance – catastrophic changes with obvious pathology. Diffuse oedema has not been formally assessed as an indicator.
MRI may be more sensitive

Predictors of better outcome are:

Recovery of brainstem reflexes within 48 hours
Return of purposeful response within 24 hours
Hypothermia at the time of arrest
Young age

Discussion

The tabulated summary below is based on the most recent ERC/ESICM statement (Sandroni et al, 2014). A vast and riduculous discussion of prognostication after cardiac arrest is also carried out in the Cardiac Arrest and Resuscitation section of this site.

Predictors of Poor Outcome in Comatose Survivors of Cardiac Arrest
Predictive sign or investigation Predictive utility Confounding factors
Absent pupillary reflex

 0% false positive rate at 72 hours, irrespective of cooling

  • Sedation
  • Hypothermia
  • Paralysis
  • Presence of shock
  • Metabolic derangements, eg. acidosis
Absent corneal reflex  0-15% false positive rate at 72 hours
Extensor motor response, or worse May be associated with poor outcomes
  • High false positive rate (~50%)
Myoclonic status epilepticus Persisting myoclonic status epilepticus has a 0% false positive rate within the first 24 hours
  • Interpreter-dependent
  • Findings may be subtle
  • Paralysis interferes with interpretation
Somatosensory evoked potentials:
absence of the N20 component
Absence of N20 predicts poor outcome with a0% false positive rate.

Presence of N20 does not rule out a poor outcome.

N20 responses may disappear on repeat testing.

N20 responses may reappear, but this does not suggest a good prognosis.

Burst suppression on EEG May be associated with poor outcome  Poor predicitive value; 
cannot be used for prognostication.
Absence of EEG reactivity Low false positive rate (0-5%) Confounded by sedation
Neuron-specific enolase NSE over 33μg/L at 1-3 days post CPR predicts poor outcome with a 0% false positive rate

NSE may be elevated for reasons other than brain injury; for instance, it may be secreted by neuroendocrine tumours

CT brain On CT, an inversed gray/white matter ratio in Hounsfield units was found in patients who failed to awaken after cardiac resuscitation. However, the predictive value of CT findings is not known

If performed too early, the CT may not demonstrate any findings.

References

Engdahl, Johan, et al. "Can we define patients with no and those with some chance of survival when found in asystole out of hospital?." The American journal of cardiology 86.6 (2000): 610-614.

Bunch, T. Jared, et al. "Outcomes and in-hospital treatment of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest patients resuscitated from ventricular fibrillation by early defibrillation." Mayo Clinic Proceedings. Vol. 79. No. 5. Elsevier, 2004.

Levine, Robert L., Marvin A. Wayne, and Charles C. Miller. "End-tidal carbon dioxide and outcome of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." New England Journal of Medicine 337.5 (1997): 301-306.

Rea, Thomas D., et al. "Temporal Trends in Sudden Cardiac Arrest A 25-Year Emergency Medical Services Perspective." Circulation 107.22 (2003): 2780-2785.

Carew, Heather T., Weiya Zhang, and Thomas D. Rea. "Chronic health conditions and survival after out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest." Heart 93.6 (2007): 728-731.

Goldberger, Zachary D., et al. "Duration of resuscitation efforts and survival after in-hospital cardiac arrest: an observational study." The Lancet (2012).

Wijdicks, E. F. M., et al. "Practice Parameter: Prediction of outcome in comatose survivors after cardiopulmonary resuscitation (an evidence-based review) Report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology."Neurology 67.2 (2006): 203-210.

Rogove, Herbert J., et al. "Old age does not negate good cerebral outcome after cardiopulmonary resuscitation: analyses from the brain resuscitation clinical trials."Critical care medicine 23.1 (1995): 18-25.

LEVY, DE, et al. "Predicting Outcome from Hypoxic-Ischemic Coma." Survey of Anesthesiology 30.2 (1986): 93.

Sandroni, Claudio, et al. "Prognostication in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest: an advisory statement from the European Resuscitation Council and the European Society of Intensive Care Medicine." Resuscitation 85.12 (2014): 1779-1789.

Question 24 - 2015, Paper 1

Outline the advantages and disadvantages of a CT scan, transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), MRI and an aortogram for the evaluation of suspected aortic dissection.

College Answer

CT

Advantages:

  • Easy availability on an emergency basis
  • High sensitivity and specificity
  • Can pick up complications involving the branches ( e.g. ischaemic gut) and
  • extent of dissection into abdominal aorta
  • Easier to monitor the patient than MRI
  • Detects pericardial effusion.

Disadvantages:

  • Have to move the patient
  • Iodinated contrast
  • Cannot assess for AR, LV function or coronaries

TOE

Advantages:

  • Bedside test
  • Can detect intimal flap, true and false lumen AR, tamponade
  • Assess LV function
  • No contrast needed

Disadvantages:

  • Semi - invasive
  • May need anaesthesia/intubation
  • May cause undesirable hypertension
  • “Blind spot” arising from left main bronchus
  • Not widely available
  • Special expertise required

MRI

Advantages:

  • High sensitivity and specificity
  • MR contrast (Gadolinium) has more favourable safety profile
  • Can detect AR

Disadvantages:

  • Not readily available
  • Inconvenient (patient motionless for 30 minutes)
  • Access and monitoring difficult, esp. for haemodynamically unstable patient on IV infusions
  • Limited applicability (claustrophobia, pacemakers etc. )

Aortography

Advantages:

  • Will detect intimal flap, AR
  • Assess LV, tamponade, blocked coronaries (important for surgery in type A dissection)

Disadvantages:

  • Not readily available
  • Invasive
  • Large contrast load

References

Question 30.1 - 2015, Paper 1

The following ECG (ECG 1) was recorded in a 25-year-old patient in ICU who was alert and conscious with a blood pressure of 100/50 mmHg.

What rhythm is demonstrated?

Give the reasons for your answer.

(40% marks)

(the college has not released their ECGs; the image above was appropriated from LITFL without any explicit permission but in the spirit of FOAM)

College Answer

The ECG is consistent with a diagnosis of SVT with aberrant conduction for the following reasons:

There are no capture or fusion beats
There is no concordance in the chest leads
The QRS complexes are relatively narrow (under 160ms)
The patient’s age makes the diagnosis of an atrial origin more likely

Discussion

This image comes from the LITFL page on distinguishing VT from SVT with aberrancy. As such, it is well suited to this SAQ. The reason for wanting to know the difference is that potentially a patient in VT will become very unstable if AV-nodal blockers like adenosine are given.

Is this VT or SVT with Aberrant Conduction? How do I know?

Supraventricular tachycardia

Historical features

  • Young age
  • Previous SVTs terminated with adenosine

ECG changes

  • Same RBBB or LBBB pattern as the patient's normal ECG
  • WPW on pre-tachycardia ECG
  • Responds to vagal manoeuvres

Ventricular tachycardia

Historical features

  • Old age
  • Ischaemic heart disease, MI
  • HOCM, long QT, Brugada

ECG changes

  • No typical RBBB or LBBB morphology
  • Bizarre axis deviation
  • Very broad complexes (>160ms)
  • AV dissociation (P rate is different to QRS rate)
  • Capture beats — occasional normal QRS complexes
  • Fusion beats — a normal and a wide QRS superimposed on top of one another
  • Concordance:         all the chest lead QRSs point in the same direction
  • Brugada’s sign –  From onset of QRS complex to nadir of S-wave is > 100ms
  • Josephson’s sign – Notching near the nadir of the S-wave
  • Left ear of RSR complex is higher than right

References

From "the ECG made easy", by Hampton (2003), and ECGs shamelessly stolen from Life in The Fastlane without any sort of permission, but in the non-commercial spirit of free education

One may turn to the ARC guidelines for management of supraventricular tachycardias (guideline 11.9), which suggests (Class A evidence) that in a stable patient, vagal manoeuvres ought to be tried and then adenosine may be used unless contraindications exist. An unstable patient may also have a trial of adenosine while a defibrillator is being acquired, or while the chest is being shaved etc.....

As their reference for this set of guidelines, the ARC quote the ACC's statement.

Question 30.2 - 2015, Paper 1

The following ECG (ECG 2) was recorded in a 40-year-old female admitted with severe trauma.

a)  List the abnormalities

b)  What is the underlying diagnosis?

c) List four pharmacological strategies for treatment of the demonstrated ECG abnormalities.

(40% marks)

(the college has not released their ECGs; the image above was appropriated from LITFL without any explicit permission but in the spirit of FOAM)

College Answer

a)            Irregular rhythm
               Absent P waves
               Bizarre widened QRS complexes
               Peaked T waves

b)            Hyperkalaemia secondary to rhabdomyolysis

c)            NaHCO 3
               CaCl2
               Dextrose/insulin
               Frusemide
               Salbutamol
               (Resonium)

A note from the author: if I am correct in my interpretation of Chris Nickson's image filename, the serum potassium in the ECG above was 9.2 mmol/L.

Discussion

Previous appeances of hyperkalemia include  Question 6.3 from the second paper of 2014, Question 18.2 from the first paper of 2013, and Question 23.1 from the first paper of 2012.

Characteristic features (if on were called upon to describe them) include the following:

  • Broad QRS complexes
  • Peaked T waves
  • No typical bundle branch block pattern
  • Left axis deviation
  • Long PR interval (if P waves are even visible)
  • Absent P waves (merged with QRS)
  • Absent T-waves (merged with QRS)
  • Ultimately, a "sine wave" ECG, which is where the P, T and QRS all merge into some sort of horrific mutant waveform. Cornelius et al (2010) published an ECG of this sort, taken from a woman with a K+ of 9.3.

References

From "the ECG made easy", by Hampton (2003), and ECGs shamelessly stolen from Life in The Fastlane without any sort of permission, but in the non-commercial spirit of free education

Cornelius, Brian G., Angela Cornelius, and Bobby Desai. "Identification of Sine Wave in Early Suspicion of Hyperkalemia." Western Journal of Emergency Medicine: Integrating Emergency Care with Population Health 11.1 (2010).

Question 30.3 - 2015, Paper 1

The following ECG (ECG 3) was recorded from a 62-year-old woman presenting with syncopal episodes

What are the abnormalities?

(20% marks)

(the college has not released their ECGs; the image above was appropriated from LITFL without any explicit permission but in the spirit of FOAM)

College Answer

Type 2 (Wenckebach) second degree heart block

Slow transition across the chest leads (? Old anteroseptal infarct)

Discussion

Little discussion is possible in this routine pattern recognition exercise. The syncopal woman has a PR interval which gradually gets longer and longer over several beats, until a P wave is not followed by a QRS complex, indicating a failure of conduction through the AV node. This is a second degree heart block, or Mobitz heart block; specifically it is a Mobitz type I (Whereas a Mobitz type II is an intermittent failure of AV conduction without PR prolongation).

The Wenckebach phenomenon referred to by the college is a Mobitz Type 1 second degree heart block, which makes their answer weird. A Type 2 second degree heart block is also an eponymous phenomenon (Hay block), and is nothing like a Wenckebach block.

Heart blocks of all sorts are discussed in greater detail elsewhere.

References

From "the ECG made easy", by Hampton (2003), and ECGs shamelessly stolen from Life in The Fastlane without any sort of permission, but in the non-commercial spirit of free education

2012 ACCF/AHA/HRS Focused Update of the 2008 Guidelines for Device-Based Therapy of Cardiac Rhythm Abnormalities A Report of the American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines

Question 2 - 2015, Paper 2

a)    List four assessments of the RIGHT ventricle that can be made on transthoracic echocardiography. (20% marks)

b)    List four clinical signs of right heart failure.    (20% marks)

c)    Classify the causes of pulmonary hypertension with examples.    (60% marks)

College Answer

a)

RV size: LV size on apical 4-chamber view RV diameter


RV wall thickness


Tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion (TAPSE) or S-PRIME on apical 4-chamber view


Right ventricular systolic pressure gradient to right atrium using tricuspid regurgitation (TR) jet. Ventricular septal motion (D-shaped septum) that can indicate pressure or volume overload


Tissue Doppler and E/E’ ratios

b)

Elevated Jugular venous pressure

Right ventricular heave

Right ventricular third heart sound

Pleural effusion


Peripheral oedema Enlarged liver edge Ascites

c)

1. Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Idiopathic PAH, Heritable-genetic disease, Drugs and toxins induced: appetite suppressants e.g. fenfluramine, Associated with systemic disease: Connective tissue diseases e.g. scleroderma, HIV infection, Porto-pulmonary hypertension

2. Pulmonary hypertension due to left heart disease

Systolic dysfunction, Diastolic dysfunction, Valvular disease: Mitral stenosis, Mitral Regurgitation, Congenital abnormalities

3. Pulmonary hypertension due to lung diseases and/or hypoxia

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, Interstitial lung disease, Sleep-disordered breathing, Alveolar hypoventilation disorders, Chronic exposure to high altitude

4. Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension

5. PH with unclear and/or multifactorial mechanisms

Hematological disorders: myeloproliferative disorders, Systemic disorders: sarcoidosis, vasculitis, Metabolic disorders: glycogen storage disease, Others: tumour obstruction, fibrosing mediastinitis, chronic renal failure on dialysis

Additional Examiners’ Comments:

Some candidates provided more than four answers for parts a) and b) and it should be noted that only the first four answers are considered. Part c) in general was poorly answered and many candidates confused acute elevations in pulmonary pressure with the disease entity of pulmonary hypertension.

Discussion

a) For the RV parameters detectable with TTE, I went to the 2010 ASE Guidelines for the echocardiographic assessment of the right heart in adults.

In brief, the assessable parameters are:

  • RV dimensions
  • RA dimensions
  • RVOT dimensions
  • RV wall thickness
  • IVC dimensions
  • RV systolic function
    • Several parameters: RIMP, TAPSE, 2D RV FAC, 2D RV ejection fraction (EF), three-dimensional (3D) RV EF, tissue Doppler–derived tricuspid lateral annular systolic velocity (S'), and longitudinal strain and strain rate.
  • RV diastolic function
    • Various parameters: E/A ratio, deceleration time, the E/e' ratio, and RA size
  • Pulmonary systolic pressure/RSVP

b) Clinical signs of right heart failure are difficult to find in any one single resource.

  • Features attributable to pulmonary hypertension
    • Loud P2(may be palpable)
    • Narrowly split S2
    • Tricuspid murmur
    • Diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation
  • Features attributable to RV hypertrophy
    • Prominent wave in the JVP
    • Right-sided fourth heart sound (augmented by inspiration)
    • Left parasternal heave
    • Downward subxiphoid thrust.
  • Features attributable to RV dilatation and decompensated failure
    • Prominent v wave in the significantly raised JVP
    • Right-sided third  heart sound (augmented by inspiration)
    • Peripheral oedema
    • Ascites
    • Hepatomegaly (which may be pulsatile)
    • Signs of LV failure, eg. pulmonary oedema (due to out-bowing of the intraventricular septum, and LV diastolic failure resulting from this)

c)

The list used by the college answer is the updated 2013 Dana Point classification, which can be found in the Siomonneau article in Table 1.

Classification of Pulmonary Hypertension
 

Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

  • Idiopathic
  • Herediary or congenital
    • Familial PAH
    • BMPR2 mutations (a member of the transforming growth factor β signaling family)
    • Congenital systemic-to-pulmonary shunts
    • Eisenmenger syndrome
  • Drug and toxin induced
    • Definite association: aminorex, fenfluramine, dexfenfluramine, toxic rapeseed oil
    • Possible association: cocaine, phenylpropanolamine, St Johns Wort, chemotherapy agents, SSRIs
  • Associated with connective tissue disease
    • Systemic sclerosis
    • SLE
    • Sjogren syndrome
    • polymyositis
    • rheumatoid arthritis
  • Associated with HIV infection
    • clinical, hemodynamic, and histologic characteristics similar to those seen in idiopathic PAH
  • Portopulmonary hypertension
    • 2% to 6% of patients with portal hypertension have PAH
    • Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is usually normal in these cases
Left heart disease
  • LV failure
  • Mitral valve disease
  • Congenital or idiopathic cardiomyopathies, eg. HOCM
Lung disease or hypoxia
  • Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (by virtue of fibrosis)
  • Chronic hypoxia:
    • Alveolar hypoxia as a result of lung disease, eg. COPD or pulmonary fibrosis
    • Alveolar hypoxia due to impaired control of breathing (eg. OSA)\
    • Alveolar hypoxia due to residence at high altitude
Thromboembolism
  • obstruction of pulmonary arterial vessels by thromboemboli, tumors, or foreign bodies
Pulmonary hypertension due to unclear or multifactorial aetiologies
  • polycythemia vera
  • essential thrombocythemia
  • chronic myeloid leukemia
  • Chronic haemolytic anaemia
    • sickle cell disease (SCD)
    • thalassemia
    • hereditary spherocytosis
    • stomatocytosis
    • microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • sarcoidosis
  • Langerhans histiocytosis
  • glycogen storage diseases
  • Gaucher disease
  • mediastinal fibrosis
  • Schistosomiasis
    • Embolic obstruction of pulmonary arteries by schistosoma eggs
    • local vascular inflammation as a result of impacted schistosoma eggs

References

Simonneau, Gérald, et al. "Updated clinical classification of pulmonary hypertension." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 54.1s1 (2009): S43-S54.

Rudski, Lawrence G., et al. "Guidelines for the echocardiographic assessment of the right heart in adults: a report from the American Society of Echocardiography: endorsed by the European Association of Echocardiography, a registered branch of the European Society of Cardiology, and the Canadian Society of Echocardiography." Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography 23.7 (2010): 685-713.

Question 11 - 2015, Paper 2

a)    Define pulsus paradoxus and describe the mechanism by which this occurs in acute pericardial tamponade.    (20% marks)

b)    List four methods by which pulsus paradoxus may be elicited clinically.    (20% marks)

c)    List four other clinical signs of acute pericardial tamponade.    (20% marks)

d)    List four electrocardiographic findings suggestive of pericarditis with cardiac tamponade. (20% marks)

e)    List four echocardiographic features of cardiac tamponade.    (20% marks)

College Answer

a)

Pulsus paradoxus is an exaggeration (> 12 mmHg or 10%) of the normal inspiratory decrease in systemic blood pressure.

Decreased intrathoracic pressure with inspiration results in increased venous return to right heart and bulge of IVS to left. Because the ventricle can normally also expand outward, this septal shift is usually small, and the difference in the blood pressure is therefore small between inspiration and expiration (<10 mmHg). With tamponade, the left ventricle cannot expand outward, so the septal shift is exaggerated and the difference in BP is larger. Also, the relatively higher negative pressure in the pulmonary circulation compared to the left atrium in patients with pericardial pathology pooling of blood in pulmonary veins during inspiration resulting in decreased LV stroke volume.

b)

Palpation of pulse- disappears in deep inspiration

Sphygmomanometer- Korotkoffs sounds first heard in expiration only and then in inspiration with progressive deflation

Pulse Oximeter-particularly useful in paediatrics

Arterial pressure trace- exaggerated fall of systolic pressure in inspiration

c)

Hypotension

Elevated JVP (neck vein distension with inspiration- Kussmaul’s sign) Muffled heart sounds

Tachypnoea

Exaggerated drop in diastolic CVP (Friedrich’s sign)

Absent y descent on CVP trace

Clinical signs of shock- decreased peripheral perfusion, slow capillary refill, oliguria, confusion.

d)

Tachycardia

Low QRS voltage trace Electrical alternans

Global concave ST elevation PR depression

e)

Visible pericardial effusion

Diastolic collapse of Right Atrium and Right Ventricle

Respiratory variation in left and right sided volumes. Atrial and ventricular septa move leftward during inspiration and rightward during expiration

Mitral and Tricuspid flow velocities are increased and out of phase. Mitral flow is increased on the first beat of inspiration and tricuspid flow is increased on expiration.

The IVC is distended and does not collapse on inspiration

Discussion

a) The definition of pulsus paradoxus used by the college is from Curtiss et al (1988) who demonstrated that 12 mmHg and 9% systolic variation (not 10%) are the 95% confidence limits for diagnosis of moderate or severe tamponade. Most textbooks instead use 10mmHg as a convenient round number, described by Swami and Spodick (2003) as "a quasi arbitrary but practical level".

b) there are in fact only four methods known:

  • Invasive arterial pressure trace: that's the classical ICU technique of demonstrating pulsus paradoxus, and is colloquially described as a "swing" of the arterial line.
  • Palpation of the radial pulse:  the disappearance of the radial pulse on inspiration was the original sign described by Kussmaul.
  • Sphygmomanometry: with the blood pressure measurement cuff inflated to the level of the systolic blood pressure, one ought to hear Korotkoff sounds.  Because the systolic blood pressure falls during spontaneous inspiration, the Korotkoff sounds disappear during inspiration. 
  • Pulse oximetry is "particularly useful in paediatrics" according to the college examiners; they probably said this on the basis of a study by Tamburro et al (2002). The pulse oximeter waveform does something similar to the waveform of an arterial line, i.e "a decrease in the highest value of the upper plethysmographic peak of the pulse-oximetry waveform was observed during inspiration in each patient". Tamburro et al  observed this phenomenon in eight children and adolescents, which might give rise to the impression that this technique is "particularly useful in paediatrics". This might be in reference to the practical difficulties of using invasive blood pressure monitoring in children; otherwise the technique is probably equally useful in adults. 

c) These are the clinical signs of cardiac tamponade (some available mainly via invasive monitoring waveforms)

  • Nonspecific findings which include tachycardia and tachypnoea
  • Beck's Triad: Muffled heart sounds, hypotension and raised CVP.
  • Kussmaul's sign: the neck veins distend with inspiration, instead of collapsing (though not everybody agrees that this is seen in tamponade)
  • Friedreich's sign: an exaggerated early drop in diastolic CVP.
  • Pulsus paradoxus - an exaggeration of the normal inspiratory fall in blood pressure
  • Pericardial rub  if the tamponade is associated with some sort of pericardial inflammation
  • Pericardial "knock", first described by Maynard Smith  (consulting surgeon of the British Expeditionary Force, 1918)  as a sound which  "may be compared to that heard in the ear-piece of a telephone when the lever is moved up and down". 
  • A third heart sound 
  • Displaced apex beat 
  • Characteristric CVP findings: classically, a sawtooth "M" or "W"  configuration of a raised CVP.
    CVP comparison - normal vs cardiac tamponade
    In summary
    • The CVP is raised
    • All CVP waveform components are elevated
    • and v waves are tall
    • x descent is steep
    • descent is (usually) absent

d) Electrocardiograhic features of pericarditis with tamponade are:

  • Tachycardia 
  • Low QRS voltage trace - which develops as the result of a large volume of fluid in the way between the heart and the electodes, a fluid which has relatively poor conductivity. Not surprisingly, this feature is found more often in patients with large effusions. However,  truly humongous effusions can be present without any tamponade physiology. 
  • Electrical alternans  is the presence of alternating high and low QRS complexes. LITFL has a nice example
  • Global concave ST elevation results from the current of injury which develops from direct pressure on the myocardium. 
  • PR depression - this is usually asociated with pericarditis, and because pericarditis is often associated with pericardial effusion the PR segments are often depressed in cardiac tamponade. Obviously, cardiac tamponade which is not due to pericarditis will probably have normal-looking PR segments. 
  • T wave inversion may develop as a result of pericardial irritation, but is by no means unique to cardiac tamponade. 

e) Echocardiographic features listed here are from Pérez-Casares et al (2017) 

  • A visible pericardial effusion is certainly a helpful finding but is by no means mandatory. Particular examples of tamponade without a significant effusion might include blood clot following cardiac surgery, where the clot does not present as a classical black echolucency you'd normally expect of a pericardial effusion.
  • Diastolic collapse of right atrium and right ventricle: this happens when the intra-chamber pressures are at their lowest. In diastole, there will be a timer where the chamber pressures are actually lower than the pericardial fluid pressure. In this situation the chambers will collapse. Atrial collapse is usually seen before ventricular collapse
  • Right atrial collapse in systole:  in early systole, atrial cavity pressure  is lower than the pericardial fluid pressure, and there is collapse of the thin free wall. Duration of this phenomenon is important: apparently, collapse for longer than one-third of the cardiac cycle is 100% specific for clinical cardiac tamponade
  • Right ventricular collapse in diastole: during the early stages, this is only present in expiration when venous return is at its poorest. Again, the loger the duration of collapse, the more severe the tamponade.
  • Diastolic ventricular size variability with respiratory cycle  is visually demonstrated using M-mode. Inspiration brings venous return to the RV and the RV dilates, pushing the septum into the LV. The opposite occurs in expiration. 
  • Septal "bounce" is the colloquial-sounding name given to the inspiratory movement of the septum towards the LV. 
  • IVC dilatation is seen because all the veins are dilated, and is essentially the echocardiographic equivalent of a raised JVP.
  • Mitral flow is decreased on inspiration:  in cardiac tamponade the peak E-wave velocity is decreased by 25% on inspiration.
  • Peak E-wave tricuspid valve physiological variation is larger than the mitral valve fluctuations -  in tamponade the peak E-wave velocity will drop by 40% in expiration compared to inspiration.
  • RVOT/LVOT flow velocity fluctuation:  during normal respiration the physiologic variation of flow in these regions is less than 10%, but in tamponade the fluctuation is greater. During inspiration the aortic peak velocity will drop by 10%, and a rise of 10% will be seen in the pulmonary trunk.
  • Hepatic vein flow reversal: in diastole, before atrial contraction the flow is either slowed or reversed. 
  • Pulmonary vein flow reversal: again the flow is either slowed or reversed before the atria contract (usually there would be some flow reversal when the atria contract, which is perfectly normal physiological phenomenon)

References

Beck, Claude S. "Two cardiac compression triads.Journal of the American Medical Association 104.9 (1935): 714-716.

Spodick, David H. "Acute cardiac tamponade." New England Journal of Medicine 349.7 (2003): 684-690.

Ariyarajah, Vignendra, and David H. Spodick. "Cardiac tamponade revisited: a postmortem look at a cautionary case." Texas Heart Institute Journal 34.3 (2007): 347.

Bilchick, Kenneth C., and Robert A. Wise. "Paradoxical physical findings described by Kussmaul: pulsus paradoxus and Kussmaul's sign." The Lancet 359.9321 (2002): 1940-1942.

Lange, Ramon L., et al. "Diagnostic signs in compressive cardiac disorders: constrictive pericarditis, pericardial effusion, and tamponade." Circulation 33.5 (1966): 763-777.

Friedreich, N. "Zur Diagnose der Herzbeutelverwachsungen." Archiv für pathologische Anatomie und Physiologie und für klinische Medicin 29.3-4 (1864): 296-312.

Smith, S. Maynard. "Pericardial knock." British Medical Journal 1.2977 (1918): 78.

Hancock, E. W. "Subacute effusive-constrictive pericarditis." Circulation 43.2 (1971): 183-192.

Shabetai, Ralph, Noble O. Fowler, and Warren G. Guntheroth. "The hemodynamics of cardiac tamponade and constrictive pericarditis." The American journal of cardiology 26.5 (1970): 480-489.

Curtiss, Edward I., et al. "Pulsus paradoxus: definition and relation to the severity of cardiac tamponade." American heart journal 115.2 (1988): 391-398.

Swami, Ashwin, and David H. Spodick. "Pulsus paradoxus in cardiac tamponade: a pathophysiologic continuum." Clinical cardiology 26.5 (2003): 215-217.

Hamzaoui, Olfa, Xavier Monnet, and Jean-Louis Teboul. "Pulsus paradoxus." European Respiratory Journal 2013 42: 1696-1705

Ruskin, Jerome, et al. "Pressure-flow studies in man: effect of respiration on left ventricular stroke volume." Circulation 48.1 (1973): 79-85.

Wong, Frankie WH. "Pulsus paradoxus in ventilated and non-ventilated patients." Dynamics 18.3 (2007): 16-18.

Khasnis, A., and Yash Lokhandwala. "Clinical signs in medicine: pulsus paradoxus." Journal of postgraduate medicine 48.1 (2002): 46.

Möller, C. T., C. G. Schoonbee, and G. ROSENDORFF. "Haemodynamics of cardiac tamponade during various modes of ventilation." British Journal of Anaesthesia 51.5 (1979): 409-415.

Wagner, Henry R. "Paradoxical pulse: 100 years later." American Journal of Cardiology 32.1 (1973): 91-92.

Tamburro, Robert F., John C. Ring, and Kimberly Womback. "Detection of pulsus paradoxus associated with large pericardial effusions in pediatric patients by analysis of the pulse-oximetry waveform." Pediatrics 109.4 (2002): 673-677.

Friedman, Howard S., et al. "The electrocardiographic features of acute cardiac tamponade." Circulation 50.2 (1974): 260-265.

Eisenberg, Mark J., et al. "The diagnosis of pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade by 12-lead ECG: a technology assessment." Chest 110.2 (1996): 318-324.

Badiger, Sharan, Prema T. Akkasaligar, and M. S. Biradar. "Electrocardiography–pericarditis, pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade." International Journal of Internal Medicine1.4 (2012): 37-41.

Pérez-Casares, Alejandro, et al. "Echocardiographic evaluation of Pericardial effusion and Cardiac Tamponade." Frontiers in pediatrics 5 (2017): 79.

Question 14.1 - 2015, Paper 2

The following ECG (ECG 1) is from a 35-year-old male who presents with paroxysmal tachycardia.

a)    Describe this ECG.    (30% marks)

b)    What would be the possible pharmacological options if his tachycardia were to recur? (20% marks)

College Answer

a)
Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

short PR interval, less than 3 small squares (120 ms)

slurred upstroke to the QRS indicating pre-excitation (delta wave) broad QRS

secondary ST and T wave changes

b)

IV procainamide or amiodarone is preferred, but any class Ia, class Ic, or class III antiarrhythmic can be used (Digoxin, Verapamil contraindicated)

Discussion

the ECG features of WPS are:

  • The PR interval is short (less than 0.12 seconds)
  • There is a delta wave (a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex)
  • Wide QRS (because the delta wave widens it)
  • ST Segment and T wave discordant changes: T waves point in the opposite direction to the QRS.
  • Pseudo-Q waves: negatively deflected delta waves in the inferior / anterior leads
  • prominent R wave in V1-3 (mimicking posterior infarction).

What can we say about the safety of AV nodal blockers in WPW?

  • Theoretically, AV nodal blockers should be safe in WPW-associated SVT, be it antidromic or orthodromic. If one thinks for a minute about the epidemiology of SVT, one will come to the conclusion that a large proportion of SVT is in fact caused by WPW or some other sort of preexcitaton syndrome, which is usually not known at the time of their first presentation. Many of these people get adenosine, which then reveals their delta waves to the horrified emergency personnel. Most of them do not die of VF. On the basis of this, we may conclude that it is probably reasonably safe.
  • Practically, antidromic SVT in WPW may be difficult to discriminate from AF or VT. Broad complexes and 300+ heart rates could be anything in WPW. Sure, it could be supraventricular, and respond to adenosine. Or it could be AF, and turn into VF. Or it could be VT, which will not benefit from an AV nodal blocker, in which case you have wasted precious time.

On this basis, the authorities tend to recommend the use of Class I or Class III agents instead of AV nodal blockers. The model answer to Question 3.1 from the first paper of 2009 lists procainamide and amiodarone as first-line agents, whereas digoxin and verapamil are contraindicated. Digoxin decreases the refractory period of the accessory pathway and verapimil tends to accelerate the ventricular response to AF by a similar mechanism. Since 2009, public opinion has also drifted away from amiodarone. As an acute infusion it is basically a beta-blocker with some AV nodal specificity. It is therefore the wrong drug for acute management of WPW SVT; or rather, it will probably be safe in the narrow-complex-obviously-orthodromic population, with the aforementioned caveats. In the long term, it becomes more useful, as its Class III and Class I effects begin to develop, slowing conduction down the accessory pathway.

Thus, generally speaking many of the AV node  blockers are at least relatively contraindicated in WPW with AF, and in AVRT unless it is confidently known to be orthodromic AVRT.  The table below has been compiled with the use of the belowlisted references and the UpToDate article on this topic

Pharmacological Peculiarities of WPW
Arrhythmia Drugs contraindicated Drugs Recommended
Orthodromic AVRT -
  • Adenosine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • Procainamide
  • Amiodarone
Antidromic AVRT
  • Adenosine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • β-blockers
  • Digoxin
  • Procainamide
  • Flacainide
  • Propafenone
  • Amiodarone
AF
  • Adenosine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • ß-blockers
  • Digoxin
  • Procainamide
  • Ibutilide
  • Dofelitide
  • Flecainide
  • Amiodarone




     
  •  
  •  

References

Redfearn, D. P., et al. "Use of medications in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." Expert opinion on pharmacotherapy 6.6 (2005): 955-963.

Winter, C., R. Nagappan, and S. Arora. "Potential dangers of the Valsalva manoeuvre and adenosine in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia-beware preexcitation." Critical Care and Resuscitation 4.2 (2002): 107.

Question 14.2 - 2015, Paper 2

a)    Describe the abnormalities.    (15% marks)
b)    List the potential complications of this condition.    (15% marks)

College Answer

a)

  • ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF Q waves II, III and aVF
  • Reciprocal ST depression in aVL, V5-6
  • Consistent with inferior STEMI

b)

  • Bradycardia and heart block (2nd and 3rd degree)
  • Posterior infarction
  • Right ventricular infarction

Discussion

The image of the inferior STEMI above was acquired illegally, from some unknown source, via Google.

localisation of coronary artery territories

ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF and depression in aVL and V5-6 corresponds to a RCA or LCx territory "inferior infarct". One ought to expect some involvement of the nodes. Specifically, the sinoatrial node (RCA) and the AV node (LCx) should be affected.

In general, the best references for this come from Edward Burns, via LITFL. Specifically, his entry on inferior STEMI is superb. There is no way one could improve on it, even for an author in the habit of duplicating LITFL's efforts.

References

Question 14.3 - 2015, Paper 2

A 65-year-old truck driver, with a history of COPD, has the following ECG (ECG 3).

Describe the ECG.    (20% marks)

College Answer

Atrial flutter: ventricular response of around 150 bpm (atrial fibrillation acceptable but less marks)
Left Axis Deviation
Poor R wave progression
Partial intra ventricular conduction defect

Discussion

As usual, the college has removed their ECG images. The image above comes from www.torreyekg.com.

No interpretation is offered there. The axis seems vaguely leftward, but in the example I have provided there is no conduction delay or poor R wave progression.

Also, it is hard to believe that the ordinarily hard-assed CICM would accept atrial fibrillation as the interpretation of a regular tachycardia.

References

Question 9 - 2016, Paper 1

With respect to the management of cardiac arrest in the pregnant patient:

a) Outline the factors that govern the decision to perform peri-mortem Caesarian section (PMCD). (70% marks)

b) List the other modifications to the standard advanced life support (ALS) protocol that need consideration in this situation. (30% marks)

College Answer

a)                                                                                                                                     

Guidelines recommend PMCD for pregnant women in cardiac arrest > 24/40 weeks (with fundus height at or above the umbilicus) when ROSC has not been achieved with usual resuscitation measures with manual lateral uterine displacement (LUD). In extreme circumstances may be considered in 20 – 24/40 week pregnancy but evidence for benefit is limited.

Decisions on the optimal timing of a PMCD for both the infant and mother are complex and require consideration of factors such as the cause of the arrest, maternal pathology and cardiac function, foetal gestational age, and resources. Shorter arrest-to-delivery time is associated with better outcome.

PMCD should be strongly considered for every mother in whom ROSC has not been achieved after ≈4 minutes of resuscitative efforts. 

If maternal viability is not possible (through either fatal injury or prolonged pulselessness), the procedure should be started immediately; the team does not have to wait to begin PMCD. 

There is no requirement for transfer to an operating theatre, obstetric/surgical expertise, and equipment beyond a scalpel or lengthy antiseptic procedures

        b)                                                                                                                                            

  • Manual lateral uterine displacement +/- left lateral tilt to avoid aorto-caval compression. Early intubation to decrease risk of aspiration – likely to be more difficult in pregnant patient Hand placement for chest compressions may need to be slightly higher.
  • Standard pad placement may be difficult because of breast size so consider bilateral (biaxillary) placement.
  • Early call for obstetric and paediatric help.

Discussion

a)

"Factors that govern the decision " is a strange thing to ask for, and could have been worded better. Unfortunately, the college could not have directly ased for "indications and contraindications" because no guidelines exist to strictly define them. In the absence of hard evidence, the following expert suggestions act as criteria for perimortem caesarian section:

  • Less than 4-5 minutes from arrest
  • Without a prolonged period of unwitnessed collapse
  • At or after 23 weeks of gestation

If the delivery is being performed with foetal survival as the rationale, further criteria apply:

  • Without a prolonged period of maternal haemorrhage or hypoxia
  • With foetal heart beat confirmed as present

Other "factors that govern" could be listed. In fact, the whole things could really be interpreted as a "critically evaluate perimortem caesarian" sort of question. In which case, one should offer arguments for and against PMCD, as well as the current evidence. Thus:

Arguments for peri-mortem Caesarian

  • Improved venous return to the heart
  • Improved efficiency of external cardiac compressions (sans pelvic tilt)
  • A chance for foetal survival if the mother is unsalvageable
  • Allows transabdominal direct cardiac massage.

Arguments against peri-mortem Caesarian

  • Strong evidence is lacking.
  • The procedure must occur within 4 minutes of arrest
  • Rarely can the procedure be performed that fast. Average time is 16 minutes (Einav et al, 2012).
  • Of the infants delivered "late", many will have severe neurological sequelae (Katz et al,  1986)

Theoretical risks of perimortem Caesarian

  • Foetal injury during the rushed procedure
  • Maternal complications consistent with survival, but resulting in disability.
  • Medicolegal risks, eg. patient/spouse/siblings will object in the future.
  • One may also be determined negligent for not performing this potentially lifesaving procedure.

Evidence regarding the efficacy and safety of  peri-mortem Caesarian

  • Beckett et al (2015): improved maternal survival and increased rates of ROSC
  • Rose et al (2015) quote maternal survival range from 17–59%, foetal survival from 61–80%, approximately 88–100% of surviving neonates neurologically intact.

b)

Modifications to standard protocols consist of the following points:

Modifications to diagnostic thinking

  • Though pregnant women may die of the same causes as non-pregnant non-women (i.e. the four Hs and four Ts), one needs to keep in mind the following alternative causes of arrest:
    • Amniotic fluid embolism
    • Hypertensive disorder of pregnancy (with ensuing cardiac failure)
    • Seizures (with ensuing hypoxia and arrest)
    • Haemorrhage from liver rupture
    • Haemorrhage from uterine rupture

Issues which complicate the pregnant arrest and peri-arrest scenario

  • Difficult intubation
  • Increased risk of aspiration (the stomach just doent't empty)
  • Venous return is impaired by the gravid uterus
  • Systemic oxygen consumption is increased
  • Cardiac output and circulating volume are greater; decompensation occurs later.

Modifications to basic life support

  • Manually displace the uterus to the left (off the aorta and vena cava)
  • Add a left lateral tilt (the ideal angle is unknown, and is thought to be between 15° and 30°).
  • Prepare for an emergency perimortem caesarian.
  • Biaxillary defibrillator pad placement

References

Einav, Sharon, Nechama Kaufman, and Hen Y. Sela. "Maternal cardiac arrest and perimortem caesarean delivery: evidence or expert-based?." Resuscitation 83.10 (2012): 1191-1200.

Morris Jr, John A., et al. "Infant survival after cesarean section for trauma." Annals of surgery 223.5 (1996): 481.

Beckett, V. A., P. Sharpe, and M. Knight. "CAPS—A UKOSS STUDY OF CARDIAC ARREST IN PREGNANCY AND THE USE OF PERI-MORTEM CAESAREAN SECTION. IMPLICATIONS FOR THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT." Emergency Medicine Journal 32.12 (2015): 995-995.

Elkady, A. A. "Peri-mortem Caesarean Section Delivery: A Literature Review and Comprehensive Overview." Enliven: Gynecol Obstet 2.3 (2015): 005.

Campbell, Tabitha A., and Tracy G. Sanson. "Cardiac arrest and pregnancy." Journal of emergencies, trauma, and shock 2.1 (2009): 34.

Katz, Vern L., Deborah J. Dotters, and William Droegemueller. "Perimortem cesarean delivery." Obstetrics & Gynecology 68.4 (1986): 571-576.

Manner, Richard L. "Court-Ordered Surgery for the Protection of a Viable Fetus:, 247 6a. 8b, 274 SE 2d 457 (1981)." (1982).

Rose, Carl H., et al. "Challenging the 4-to 5-minute rule: from perimortem cesarean to resuscitative hysterotomy." American journal of obstetrics and gynecology 213.5 (2015): 653-653.

Question 16 - 2016, Paper 1

a) List five clinical signs of severity in chronic aortic regurgitation. (25% marks)

b) What are the indications for surgery for chronic aortic regurgitation? (25% marks)

c) List five causes of a pathological systolic murmur over the precordium and briefly list their auscultatory characteristics. (50% marks)

College Answer

a) Any five of:        

  • Collapsing pulse/wide pulse pressure
  • Length of decrescendo diastolic murmur
  • LV third heart sound
  • Soft A2
  • [Austin Flint (mid-diastolic) murmur]
  • Left ventricular failure
  • Displaced apex beat

b)             

  • Symptoms- exertional angina, dyspnoea on exertion, syncope.
  • Worsening LV failure (falling ejection fraction)
  • Progressive LV dilatation on serial echocardiography (LV end systolic dimensions >5.5 cm)

c) Any five of:                                                                                         

  • Aortic Stenosis-diamond-shaped (crescendo-decrescendo), heard best at the right upper sternal border, radiates to the right supraclavicular area, and to the carotids
  • Mitral regurgitation-blowing, harsh, holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex, usually radiates to the axilla or back.
  • Pulmonary stenosis- diamond-shaped systolic, heard best at the left upper sternal border, may radiate to back
  • Tricuspid regurgitation-harsh, holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border.
  • Subaortic stenosis/HOCM-harsh, diamond-shaped, mid-systolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border
  • Mitral Valve Prolapse-mid-systolic click followed by a brief crescendo-decrescendo murmur, usually best at the apex
  • Ventricular Septal Defect- holosystolic murmur, best heard over lower left sternal border, with radiation to the right lower sternal border 
  • Atrial Septal Defect- mid-systolic flow murmur best heard over the “pulmonic area” of the chest, and may radiate into the back followed by fixed split S2.
  • Patent Ductus Arteriosus- To & fro machinery murmur (systolic and diastolic)

Discussion

a)

One might expect that deatures suggestive of severity in chronic AR would be mainly features related to the effect of AR on cardiac function, not just generic features of AR

  • LV dilatation (displaced apex, diffuse hyperdynamic impulse)
  • Congestive cardiac failure (low blood pressure, peripheral oedema)
  • Poor exercise tolerance
  • Signs of widened pulse pressure (see below)
  • An S3, suggestive of poor LV function

Generic features of AR are as follows:

  • Signs of widened pulse pressure:
    These were mentioned in Question 14.2 from the first paper of 2013
    • Corrigans sign: a "jerky" carotid pulse: full expansion, followed by complete collapse. You're palpating the pressure of the left ventricle, essentially. It's named after a 19th century Irishman. It indicates a severe aortic incompetence.
    • de Musset's sign which the college answer has spelled incorrectly is  a visible nodding of the head in time with arterial pulsation in patients with severe aortic insufficiency. It is named after an aortically insufficient French poet.
    • Quincke's sign, otherwise known as Quincke's pulse, is a nail sign: it is seen when the nailbed is blanched. The pale nail bed flashed red and white as capillary refill is restored. It can also be seen in the absence of any aortic problems, in patients who have sclerodactily.
    • Duroziez's sign is elicited by listening over the femoral artery with the bell of the stethoscope. It is supposed to be a double murmur. According to some recent evidence, it has almost 100% specificity. There is supposed to be both a systolic and a diastolic bruit, as blood rushes into - and then rapidly out of - the femoral artery.
  • These are mentioned in UpToDate:
    • Traube's sign – A pistol shot pulse (systolic and diastolic sounds) heard over the femoral arteries.
    • Mueller's sign – Systolic pulsations of the uvula.
    • Becker's sign – Visible pulsations of the retinal arteries and pupils.
    • Hill's sign – Popliteal cuff systolic pressure exceeding brachial pressure by more than 20 mmHg with patient in the recumbent position.
    • Mayne's sign – More than a 15 mmHg decrease in diastolic blood pressure with arm elevation from the value obtained with the arm in the standard position.
    • Rosenbach's sign – Systolic pulsations of the liver.
    • Gerhard's sign – Systolic pulsations of the spleen. 
  • Chacteristic auscultatory findings:
    • Soft S1
    • Soft A2
    • An S3 if LV function is severely depressed
    • A systolic ejection sound due to abrupt aortic distension

b)

Indications for valve replacement, as given in the 2014 AHA/ACC guidelines, are as follows:

  • Symptomatic patients:
    • When the AR is Stage D, i.e with a dilated LV, Doppler jet width ≥65% of LVOT and holodiastolic flow reversal in the proximal abdominal aorta
  • Asymptomatic patients:
    • LVEF <50%
    • Normal LVEF, but with significant LV dilatation (end-systolic diameter > 50mm or end-diastolic diameter >65mm)
    • None of the above, but about to undergo cardiac surgery anyway (for some other reason)

c)

Causes of systolic murmurs and their characteristic auscultatory findings:

Cause of murmur Auscultatory characteristics
Tricuspid regurgitation
  • Right of sternum, or left sternal edge
  • Louder on inspiration
  • Does not radiate to the carotids
Aortic stenosis
  • Radiates to the carotids
  • Louder on expiration
  • Quieter with isometric hand grip
  • Quieter with Valsalva
Mitral regurgitation
  • Loud S3
  • Soft or absent S1
  • Maximal at apex
  • Radiates to axilla
  • Pan-systolic
  • Louder with isometric hand grip
  • Quieter with Valsalva
Atrial septal defect
  • Fixed split P2
  • Louder on inspiration
HOCM
  • Loudest at left sternal edge
  • No click
  • S4 is present
  • Quieter with isometric hand grip
  • Louder with Valsalva

References

Nicholas Joseph Talley, Simon O'Connor; Clinical Examination: A Systematic Guide to Physical Diagnosis (7th ed)

SEGAL, JACK P., W. PROCTOR HARVEY, and MICHAEL A. CORRADO. "The Austin Flint murmur: its differentiation from the murmur of rheumatic mitral stenosis." Circulation 18.5 (1958): 1025-1033.

Leatham, Aubrey. "Splitting of the first and second heart sounds." The Lancet 264.6839 (1954): 607-614.

Sabbah, HANI N., and PAUL D. Stein. "Investigation of the theory and mechanism of the origin of the second heart sound." Circulation research 39.6 (1976): 874-882.

Saberi, Asif, and Saeed A. Syed. "Corrigan’s sign." Hospital Physician (1999): 29.

DAVIES, M., and A. Hollman. "de Musset sign." Heart 82.3 (1999): 262.

Norton, S. A. "Keratoderma with pseudo-Quincke's pulse." Cutis 62.3 (1998): 135-136.

Sapira, J. D. "Quincke, de Musset, Duroziez, and Hill: some aortic regurgitations." Southern medical journal 74.4 (1981): 459-467.

Luisada, Aldo A. "On the pathogenesis of the signs of Traube and Duroziez in aortic insufficiency. A graphic study." American Heart Journal 26.6 (1943): 721-736.

BLUMGART, HERRMAN L., and A. CARLTON ERNSTENE. "Two mechanisms in the production of Duroziez's sign: their diagnostic significance and a clinical test for differentiating between them." Journal of the American Medical Association 100.3 (1933): 173-177.

Nishimura, Rick A., et al. "2014 AHA/ACC guideline for the management of patients with valvular heart disease: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 63.22 (2014): e57-e185.

Question 18 - 2016, Paper 1

You are asked to review a 58-year-old male intubated and ventilated in the ICU for severe community acquired pneumonia. His oxygenation is adequate on FiO2 0.5 with PEEP set at 15 cmH20. Over the preceding 2 hours his noradrenaline requirement has climbed from 4 mcg/minute to 30 mcg/min to maintain target mean arterial pressure > 65 mmHg.

a) List the potential causes for this clinical scenario (40% marks)

b) Outline your management of this situation. (60% marks)

College Answer

a)

Probably multifactorial but potential causes:

  • Distributive shock
    • Septic shock
  • Cardiogenic shock/cardiac depression from sepsis/drugs
  • Obstructive shock- 
    • pneumothorax
    • High PEEP 
    • Dynamic hyperinflation
    • Tamponade less likely
    • PE unlikely
  • Hypovolaemic shock less likely but patient may be fluid responsive
  • Drug delivery failure – misplaced CVC / kinked or leaking line
  • Administration of drugs causing hypotension e.g. propofol, IV paracetamol

b)

Clinical exam (ABCs) to assess for cause and resuscitate simultaneously

  • Rapid check to verify BP – non-invasive, check transducer position, check arterial pressure trace not damped
  • Recent CXR / lung U/S for pneumothorax
  • Associated oxygen requirements
  • CVP – baseline and change with fluid responsiveness
  • Evidence of end organ perfusion: lactate, urine output, LFTs
  • Response to dynamic manoeuvres (e.g. straight leg raise)

Management options:

  • Assess for and treat reversible causes: 
  • If possible minimise PEEP and sedation o Check ventilator settings
  • Judicious fluid filling but conflicting goals given oxygenation difficulties
  • Urgent echocardiogram to exclude cardiac cause and assess fluid responsiveness +/- cardiac output monitor (PAC/PiCCO/Vigileo)
    • If hyperdynamic consider addition of steroid therapy and vasopressin
    • If low cardiac output state consider addition of adrenaline +/- other inotrope e.g. milrinone/dobutamine
    • If hypovolaemic appropriate fluid resus
  • Maintain adequate oxygenation, ventilation
  • Review micro and check sensitivities
  • Broad spectrum antibiotics
  • Consider fresh bag of noradrenaline

Discussion

a)

Broadly, differential diagnosis for shock would have to include the following categories:

  • Neurogenic: another form of “distributive” shock
  • Anaphylactic: also “distributive” shock
  • Cardiogenic: pump failure. No pumping = no blood flow
  • Hypovolemic: loss of blood or water
  • Obstructive: eg. tension pneumothorax or cardiac tamponade
  • Septic: “distributive” shock; stagnation of blood flow owing to vasodilation

In the context of the history we are offered, one may need to reframe the answer and order it in reference to the likelihood of each cause. The college love it when you prioritise your answer. Thus:

  • Septic shock  is the most likely answer, as the patient already has a diagnosed
  • Cardiogenic shock is the next most likely, as the patient is in the right age group for coronary artery disease, is at risk of MI, and may have a degree of septic cardiomyopathy
  • Hypovolemic shock is the next most likely, and may represent a sudden GI bleed ( as patients with high PEEP are at greater risk of gastric ulceration) or another
  • Obstructive shock is possible, given that the PEEP is very high
  • Artifactual shock: the blood pressure is being measured incorrectly, or the noradrenaline line has become accidentally disconnected

b)

This approach assumes that the patient does not have any fancy PiCCO or PA catheter in situ.

  • Rule out artifactual and spurious causes
    • Re-zero/recalibrate arteral line
    • Ensure vasopressor infusion line is connected
    • Exclude drug error ("is that really noradrenaline?")
    • Ensure sedation infusion rate is not accidentally excessive
  • Assess the airway
    • Rule out airway obstruction
    • Examination of the patient'sface to rule out angioedema and anaphylaxis can take place at this stage, as it would be important to exclude these early.
  • Assess the respiratory system
    • Examine chest expansion
    • Auscultate the chest
      • Rule out tension pneumothorax
      • Rule out dynamic hyperinflation
    • End-tidal CO2:
      • Rule out hypercapneic vasodiation
      • Consider massive PE if EtCO2 is suddenly lower than the last PaCO2
    • Drop PEEP to 8-10, to exclude the contribution of high PEEP
  • Assess the circulation in detail, focusing on the following
    • Capillary refill
    • Tachycardia or bradycardia (i.e. is the rate responsible for the hypotension)
    • Arrhythmia (i.e. AF with loss of atrial kick)
    • Heart sounds and murmurs (new murmur? Did the mitral valve just die on me? Are the heart sounds muffled, suggestive of a pericardial effusion?)
    • CVP and its trend: did the CVP just suddenly drop, or rise?
    • Urine output in the last hour
    • Aspirate the NG tube, to look for blood or coffee grounds
  • Assess dynamic predictors of fluid responsiveness
    • Pulse pressure variation, arterial line"swing"
    • Passive leg raise test
  • At this stage, one should decide whether one wants to give a fluid bolus of 10ml/kg
  • Perform a rapid bedside TTE, looking for:
    • LV contractility (grossly: "good, bad, not too bad")
    • RV dilatation (grossly: is it bigger than the LV on a 4-chamber view?)
    • Pericardial effusion and tamponade
    • IVC diameter (although this resembles black magic, because nobody knows what the normal appearance should be. A dry collapsed IVC is more informative than a vaguely mid-sized one).
  • At this stage, one should decide whether one wants to add an inotrope, eg. milrinone or dobutamine
  • At this stage one should also have come to the conclusion as to what short of shock state this is.
    • If the shock is of a distributive sort, one should consider adding vasopressin to noradrenaline, and giving the patient a "stress dose" of corticosteroids.
  • Investigations:
    • Perform a CXR to ensure the CVC tip is in an appropriate position and that no new pathology has emerged beyond the pneumonia
    • Perform an ECG, looking for new change suspicious of MI
    • Perform an ABG and a set of bloods to look for lactic acidosis and to establish any organ system failures
    • Perform a septic screen, including blood cultures and inflammatory markers
  • If the cause of haemodynamic instability is still not apparent form these manoeuvres, or a TTE is not available, one may need to resort to advanced haemodynamic monitoring techniques:
    • PA catherisation
    • PiCCO monitoring
    • ScvO2 sampling

References

Vincent, Jean-Louis, and Daniel De Backer. "Circulatory shock." New England Journal of Medicine 369.18 (2013): 1726-1734.

Goldberg S, Liu P, "Undifferentiated Shock" Critical Decisions in Emergency Medicine March 2015 • Volume 29 • Number 3

Corl, Keith, Sameer Shah, and Eric Gartman. "Ultrasound Evaluation of Shock and Volume Status in the Intensive Care Unit." Ultrasound in the Intensive Care Unit. Springer New York, 2015. 65-76.

Question 26.1 - 2016, Paper 1

Please note: The following ECGs have all been recorded at 25 mm/sec and gain setting of 10 mm/mVe 26.1

A 54-year-old female walks into the Emergency Department complaining of palpitations for the past hour Her ECG is shown on page 8 (Figure 1). She has no electrolyte abnormalities.

a) Describe the rhythm disturbance. (20% marks)

b) How would you treat this rhythm disturbance? (10% marks)

c) Name two anti-arrhythmic drugs that are contra-indicated for this rhythm disturbance. (20% marks)

College Answer

a)

Atrial fibrillation with an accessory pathway                                                                                  

AF / SVT with aberrant conduction acceptable answer.(The rapid rate precludes AF with bundle branch block so no marks should be given for AF with bundle branch block).

b)

Electrical cardioversion (flecainide, ibutilide, propafenone acceptable).

c)

Digoxin, calcium channel blocker, beta-blockers, amiodarone, adenosine or other agents that preferentially block AV node and not accessory pathway.

Discussion

a)

This is WPW, in AF. The conduction rate is roughly 1:1.5; the QRS rate is about 180 to 200. It is hard to tell that its irregularly irregular. The QRS complexes will be a mixture of pre-excited delta-waving ones, and normal-looking narrow ones. If the accessory pathway has a short refractory period, it will conduct more often and therefore there will be more broad complexes than narrow ones. The shorter the refractory period of the accessory pathway, the broader the QRS. And the broader the QRS, the greater the chance of this thing degenerating into ventricular fibrillation.

b)

Management of this acute arrhythmia has several options:

  • vagal manoeuvres
  • AVOID ASV node blocking drugs such as adenosine, digoxin, beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
  • Procainamide, ibutilide or amiodarone are the only antiarrhytmics useful in WPW
  • DC synchronised cardioversion

Flecainide or propafenone are used in long term management. Amiodarone also OK - but the side effect profile in long term use is not very nice for younger patients.

c)

What can we say about the safety of AV nodal blockers in WPW?

  • Theoretically, AV nodal blockers should be safe in WPW-associated SVT, be it antidromic or orthodromic. If one thinks for a minute about the epidemiology of SVT, one will come to the conclusion that a large proportion of SVT is in fact caused by WPW or some other sort of preexcitaton syndrome, which is usually not known at the time of their first presentation. Many of these people get adenosine, which then reveals their delta waves to the horrified emergency personnel. Most of them do not die of VF. On the basis of this, we may conclude that it is probably reasonably safe.
  • Practically, antidromic SVT in WPW may be difficult to discriminate from AF or VT. Broad complexes and 300+ heart rates could be anything in WPW. Sure, it could be supraventricular, and respond to adenosine. Or it could be AF, and turn into VF. Or it could be VT, which will not benefit from an AV nodal blocker, in which case you have wasted precious time.

On this basis, the authorities tend to recommend the use of Class I or Class III agents instead of AV nodal blockers. The model answer to Question 3.1 from the first paper of 2009 lists procainamide and amiodarone as first-line agents, whereas digoxin and verapamil are contraindicated. Digoxin decreases the refractory period of the accessory pathway and verapimil tends to accelerate the ventricular response to AF by a similar mechanism. Since 2009, public opinion has also drifted away from amiodarone. As an acute infusion it is basically a beta-blocker with some AV nodal specificity. It is therefore the wrong drug for acute management of WPW SVT; or rather, it will probably be safe in the narrow-complex-obviously-orthodromic population, with the aforementioned caveats. In the long term, it becomes more useful, as its Class III and Class I effects begin to develop, slowing conduction down the accessory pathway.

References

Wellens, Hein JJ, and Dirk Durrer. "Effect of digitalis on atrioventricular conduction and circus-movement tachycardias in patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." Professor Hein JJ Wellens. Springer Netherlands, 2000. 63-68.

Gulamhusein, S. A. J. A. D., et al. "Acceleration of the ventricular response during atrial fibrillation in the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome after verapamil."Circulation 65.2 (1982): 348-354.

Munger, T. M., et al. "A population study of the natural history of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome in Olmsted County, Minnesota, 1953-1989."Circulation 87.3 (1993): 866-873.

Svenson, ROBERT H., et al. "Electrophysiological evaluation of the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome: problems in assessing antegrade and retrograde conduction over the accessory pathway." Circulation 52.4 (1975): 552-562.

Narula, Onkar S. "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome A Review." Circulation 47.4 (1973): 872-887.

and, somewhat more recently...

Scheinman, Melvin M. "History of Wolff‐Parkinson‐White Syndrome." Pacing and clinical electrophysiology 28.2 (2005): 152-156.

Keating, L., F. P. Morris, and W. J. Brady. "Electrocardiographic features of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." Emergency medicine journal 20.5 (2003): 491-493.

 

Question 26.2 - 2016, Paper 1

Please note: The following ECGs have all been recorded at 25 mm/sec and gain setting of 10 mm/mVe 26.1

A 64-year-old male is admitted to the ICU following coronary artery bypass surgery. His rhythm strip and central venous pressure waveform is shown on page 9 (Figure 2).

Give the likely cause of the abnormality shown.        (20% marks)

College Answer

Epicardial (atrial & ventricular) pacing leads reversed. 

Discussion

The image used here is from an article by Aktas et al (2007), where this phenomenon is discussed. Specific feature is the fact that pacer spikes both precede and follow each QRS complex (one is the atrial lead pacing the ventricle, the other is the ventricular lead pacing the atrium after the ventricle has already depolarised).

Additional information can be derived from the (not to scale) CVP waveform:

atrioventricular lead reversal CVP waveform

The first wave is the ventricular contraction, which ejects blood out of the tricuspid valve before it closes (as the atria had not contracted yet, the annulus is not "tight" enough). The second ave is the poor atriumcontracting against a closed tricuspid valve, which increases the venous pressure.

References

Aktas, Mehmet K., Abrar H. Shah, and Toshio Akiyama. "Atrioventricular Pacemaker Leaf Reversal." Journal of Arrhythmia 23.1 (2007): 69-72.

Question 26.3 - 2016, Paper 1

Please note: The following ECGs have all been recorded at 25 mm/sec and gain setting of 10 mm/mVe 26.1

Describe the ECG shown on page 10 (Figure 3). (20% marks)

List four conditions that are associated with the axis abnormality seen in this ECG. (10% marks)

College Answer

a)

  • Rightward QRS axis 
  • Peaked P waves in the inferior leads > 2.5 mm (P pulmonale) with a rightward P-wave axis (inverted in aVL)
  • Clockwise rotation of the heart with a delayed R/S transition point (transitional lead = V5). Right ventricular hypertrophy criteria present Right axis deviation of +110° or more.
  • Dominant R wave in V1 (> 7 mm tall or R/S ratio > 1).
  • Dominant S wave in V5 or V6 (> 7 mm deep or R/S ratio < 1).
  • QRS duration < 120 ms (i.e. changes not due to RBBB).
  • Right ventricular strain pattern = ST depression / T wave inversion in the right precordial (V14) and inferior (II, III, aVF) leads.
  • Deep S waves in the lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-V6).

b) Right ventricular hypertrophy

  • Left posterior hemi block
  • Lateral myocardial infarction
  • Acute right heart strain
  • Drug toxicity (e.g. TCAs)

Discussion

This is an ECG of RV hypetrophy stolen from LITFL.

Edward Burns gives the following electrocardiographic features:

Diagnostic criteria

  • Right axis deviation of +110° or more.
  • Dominant R wave in V1 (> 7mm tall or R/S ratio > 1).
  • Dominant S wave in V5 or V6 (> 7mm deep or R/S ratio < 1).
  • QRS duration < 120ms (i.e. changes not due to RBBB).

Supporting criteria

  • Right atrial enlargement (P pulmonale).
  • Right ventricular strain pattern = ST depression / T wave inversion in the right precordial (V1-4) and inferior (II, III, aVF) leads.
  • S1 S2 S3 pattern = far right axis deviation with dominant S waves in leads I, II and III.
  • Deep S waves in the lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-V6).

Other abnormalities caused by RVH 

Right bundle branch block (complete or incomplete).

References

Question 25.1 - 2016, Paper 2

The ECG shown on page 11 (Figure 1) is from a 41-year-old female admitted for management of anorexia.

a) List the ECG abnormalities. (10% marks)

b) Give the underlying cause. (10% marks)

c) List four other ECG abnormalities that may be seen in this condition. (10% marks)

College answer

a)  
ST depression 
T    wave flattening and inversion 
U    waves  
Long QT/QU interval (fusion of T and U waves) 
 
b)    Hypokalaemia 
 
c)    
P wave amplitude increased (>2.5 mm in limb leads, >1.5 mm in chest leads) 
P wave width increased (>120 msec) 
PR interval prolonged (>200 msec) 
Supraventricular ectopics 
Ventricular ectopics 
Atrial fibrillation 
Atrial flutter 
Atrial tachycardia 
Torsade de pointes 
 

Discussion

The ECG above was stolen from the LITFL archive.

ECG findings of hypokaelmia:

  • Ventricular tachycardia: classically, torsades de pointes
  • Atrial tachycardias
  • PR interval prolongation (>200 msec)
  • P wave amplitude increased (>2.5 mm in limb leads, >1.5 mm in chest leads) - a "pseudo-P-pulmonale" pattern
  • P wave width increased (>120 msec)
  • u-waves (thpough these are not unique to hypokalemia: they are associated with LVH, bradycardia and may occasionally be a normal variant)
  • T-wave inversion
  • Ectopics (ventricular and atrial)

References

Norgard, Nicholas, Amanda McEvoy, and Thomas Madejski. "Influence of Pharmacologic Agents and Electrolytes on ECGs." Clinical Exercise Electrocardiography (2015): 173.

Question 25.2 - 2016, Paper 2

The ECG shown on page 12 (Figure 2) is that of a 26-year-old patient who collapsed while playing football.

a) Describe the ECG abnormalities. (5% marks)

b) Give the likely diagnosis. (5% marks)

c) What other features would you look for on examination of the cardiovascular system? (20% marks)

College answer

a)    LVH with strain pattern. 
 
b)    Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). 
 
c)    Late systolic murmur / midsystolic murmur at left lower sternal edge and apex (due to LVOT obstruction).  Pansystolic murmur at apex due to mitral regurgitation (LVOT obstruction lead to pressure effect on anterior mitral valve leaflet causing systolic anterior motion and mitral regurgitation). 
 

Discussion

Image stolen from the LITFL LVH page.

References

Question 25.3 - 2016, Paper 2

The ECG shown on page 13 (Figure 3) is that of a 76-year-old male presenting with acute appendicitis requiring surgery. He is haemodynamically stable.

a) Comment on this ECG. (20% marks)

The anaesthetist would like a temporary pacing wire placed before surgery.

b) What is your advice? (20% marks)

College answer

a)    Secondary degree AV block, Mobitz type 1 
 
b)    Patients with Mobitz type 1 block who are asymptomatic and haemodynamically stable do not require a pacing wire. If unstable then atropine could be tried. Transcutaneous or transvenous pacing is then indicated. Reversible causes like myocardial ischaemia, high vagal tone or drugs (beta blockers, Ca channel blockers or digoxin) should be sought and corrected.  

Additional Examiners' Comments: 
There were a number of common difficulties candidates encountered. The main one was lack of knowledge in this area, and the main gap was in recognising the second-degree AV block – type 1.  Many of the answers were 'scattergrams' of all the ECG patterns/phrases the candidates could remember – sometimes contradictory! Another systemic problem seemed to be time allocation. A number of candidates missed whole parts of the question or answered part 3 with less care and attention than parts 1 and 2. 

 

Discussion

Image stolen from the LITFL page on this heart block

References

2012 ACCF/AHA/HRS Focused Update of the 2008 Guidelines for Device-Based Therapy of Cardiac Rhythm Abnormalities A Report of the American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines

Question 4 - 2017, Paper 1

Discuss the potential mechanical strategies for supporting myocardial function in a 45-year-old male presenting with cardiogenic shock post-revascularisation for an acute anterior myocardial infarction.

In your answer include the physiological rationale for each strategy.

College answer

Positive End Expiratory Pressure
This can either be delivered invasively or non-invasively. By increasing the positive pressure within 
the thoracic cavity, venous return to the heart is reduced thereby reducing cardiac preload to 
facilitate movement back to the optimal point on the Starling Curve. Also reduces afterload by 
reducing pressure gradient across the myocardial (left ventricular) wall. Also reduces work of 
breathing (reduces cardiac work) and improves PaO2 (O2 delivery to coronary blood flow).
Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump
The inflation of the intra-aortic balloon pump at the time of diastole increases coronary perfusion to 
increase cardiac contractility and reduces the after load at the commencement of systole as the 
balloon deflates.
Pacing
Emergency transcutaneous, temporary transvenous and permanent multi-chamber pacing. Improves 
cardiac output by optimising the heart rate and/or synchronising A-V conduction optimising “atrial 
kick”. Increasing the heart rate to normal in profound bradycardia as CO = SV x HR. Overdrive 
pacing in tachyarrhythmias to re-establish normal conduction and then slow the heart improves 
cardiac output by increased ventricular filling and improved coronary artery perfusion in diastole.
Ventricular Assist Devices 
This provides either a continuous or pulsatile pumping of blood from the left ventricle directly into the 
aorta (LVAD) or from right atrium or right ventricle directly to pulmonary artery (RVAD) or functions 
as both (BIVAD).
Decreases workload of the heart whilst maintaining adequate flow and blood pressure.
Indicated if potentially reversible myocardial stunning or as a bridge to transplantation or for support 
during high-risk revascularisation procedures. In this patient as a bridge to transplantation may allow 
management as outpatient. Requires cardiac surgical expertise for insertion and so not available in 
all centres.
Veno-Arterial Extra Corporeal Membrane Oxygenation
Venous blood is extracted, oygenated externally and then pumped and returned to the arterial 
system providing both oxygenation and circulation. Decreases workload of heart and lungs whilst 
maintaining flow, blood pressure and oxygenation.
Requires expertise for insertion and maintenance and not available in all ICUs.

Discussion

This question is virtually identical to Question 19 from the second paper of 2012. To simplify revision and sabotage SEO, this table is copied here without any alteration.

 Mechanical Haemodynamic Support Strategies
Strategy Advantages Limitations

Positive pressure ventilation:
the use of positive pressure to decrease LV preload and afterload (by manipulating transmural pressure)

  • Easy to apply
  • Minimally invasive
  • Added benefit of improved oxygenation and gas exchange
  • Invasive ventilation has the added benefit of anaesthesia +/- paralysis, which decreases whole-body oxygen demand
  • Preload reduction may result in hypotension in the volume-depleted patient
  • Increased intrathoracic pressure increases RV afterload, exacerbating right heart failure
  • Positive pressure may result in barotrauma and volutrauma
  • All the risks of mechanical ventilation apply, eg. VAP
Temporary transcutaneous pacing:
  • Requires minimal skill to apply
  • Minimally invasive
  • Cardiac output will increase in proportion to
  • Requires a substantial amount of analgesia and sedation
  • Uncomfortable for the patient
  • May cause significant tissue damage
  • Not a long-term solution
  • Poor A-V synchrony
Temporary transvenous pacing
  • Comparatively easy to insert
  • Dual-chamber pacing may improve A-V synchrony and restore the "atrial kick".
  • Not only does it work in bradycardia, but also by "overdrive pacing" in tachycardia, where the slowed heart rate allows for longer diastolic filling
  • Requires some expertise to manage and troubleshoot
  • Invasive, with all the risks of large-bore central venous access
  • Generally, one can only pace the ventricle, which means A-V synchrnoy will be lost; the "atrial kick" may be sorely missed by patients with severe valve dysfunction
Cardiac resynchronisation therapy: biventricular pacing
  • Restores synchrony to ventricular contraction in patients with severe heart failure
  • There is strong evidence that CRT reduces mortality and hospitalisation  (i.e. it is superior to AICD or medical therapy).
  • Requires specialist skill to insert and adjust; hardly an emergency procedure
  • To benefit, one must have LBBB, a wide QRS, and an LVEF less than 35%.
  • Generally, only about 5-10% of heart failure patients will benefit
  • There is a "heterogeneity of effect" in patients  who do not meet the recognised criteria (read: it does them no good)
Intra-aortic balloon pump:
  • Decreases LV afterload
  • Improves coronary arterial filling in diastole
  • Improves forward flow though defective mitral valves
  • Nowadays, little adjustment is required (automatic timing is usually satisfactory)
  • "Severe" cardiogenic shock is still not very well investigated, and there may be an unrecognised  mortality benefit in this group.
  • Violently invasive
  • Requires a certain level of expertise to place correctly.
  • Significant complications are associated with its use, including a non-zero rate of death and limb loss.
  • The mortality benefit in most patients might either be marginal or altogether absent, depending on what you read. Certainly, the IABP-SHOCK II trail did not demonstrate any survival improvement.
  • Does not benefit the right ventricle.
  • Contraindicated in aortic regurgitation
  • Poor effect in AF, particularly rapid AF
Ventricular assist devices:
  • Decreases myocardial workload
  • Offers a bridge to heart transplantation
  • Effective temporary support for myocardial stunning
  • May afford a period of outpatient management
  • Highly invasive
  • Requires surgical expertise to implement
  • Requires significant anticoagulation
  • Substantial risk of infection (50%)
  • In spite of anticoagulation, there is a significant risk of thrombosis
VA- ECMO
  • Not only decreases myocardial workload- it may take over all of the circulatory workload.
  • Attends to both circulation and gas exchange
  • Easier to implement (percutaneous technique does not require surgical expertise)
  • Highly invasive
  • Requires expertise to implement
  • Requires significant anticoagulation
  • In spite of anticoagulation, there is a significant risk of thrombosis
  • All the complications of large-bore arterial and venous access

Though strictly speaking it is a "mechanical haemodynamic support strategy", the author still could not bring himself to include manual cardiac compressions in the list above.

References

Cove, Matthew E., and Graeme MacLaren. "Clinical review: mechanical circulatory support for cardiogenic shock complicating acute myocardial infarction." Crit Care 14.5 (2010): 235.

Boehmer, John P., and Eric Popjes. "Cardiac failure: mechanical support strategies." Critical care medicine 34.9 (2006): S268-S277.

Cooper, David S., et al. "Cardiac extracorporeal life support: state of the art in 2007." Cardiology in the young 17.S4 (2007): 104-115.

Brignole, Michele, et al. "2013 ESC Guidelines on cardiac pacing and cardiac resynchronization therapy." European heart journal (2013): eht150.

Question 6 - 2017, Paper 1

A 64-year-old female patient has been ventilated in your ICU for 36 hours with septic shock and is receiving significant doses of noradrenaline and vasopressin. On the morning review you note her troponin level is elevated to over 10 times the normal range for your institution.

How do you interpret the raised troponin level in this setting?        (40% marks)

Outline your assessment and management plan specific to the raised troponin level. (60% marks)

College answer

a) Interpretation of raised troponin- should not be used in isolation in this patient. The measured 
value of troponin is high and should not be ignored or dismissed. If unexpected, repeat the 
test. Symptoms of chest pain are not easy to elicit in the ventilated patient. Troponin leak in 
this setting may be due to myocarditis associated with sepsis, acute cardiomyopathy.
Takotsubo disease given high dose vasopressor or a STEMI or NSTEMI or right ventricular 
disease. Elevated troponin in renal failure should also be considered if relevant. Elevated 
troponins are associated with poor outcomes in septic patients.

b) Management plan- Comprehensive clinical assessment especially cardiovascular and 
haemodynamic assessment. Look for recent, rapid increase in vasopressor requirement, 
signs of cardiogenic shock. Review ECG for any evidence of STEMI or other new changes, 
Review CXR for new pulmonary oedema/heart failure. Echo- transthoracic or if available TOE 
is mandatory to look for any regional wall motion abnormalities that may be new. Evidence of 
global changes on echocardiography may indicate acute cardiomyopathy e.g. Myocarditis. 
Look for classic changes of Takatsubo’s.
Further management will be determined by ECG and echo findings. Cardiology review, 
anticoagulation, careful consideration of thrombolysis or angioplasty if STEMI or regional 
changes on echo with consideration given to haemodynamic instability and challenges of 
transfer and management in cardiac catheter lab. Role of IABP in global hypokinesis related 
to acute cardiomyopathies. 
Troponin increases in septic patients is thought to be associated with poor prognosis 

Additional Examiners’ Comments:
Candidates were not expected to reproduce the template, but to demonstrate a reasonable and 
structured approach to the issue.

Discussion

Interpretation of a raised troponin in septic shock:

  • It may be totally meaningless:
    • Cardiac troponins are elevated in 85% of patients with sepsis in the absence of acute coronary syndrome.
    • Overinterpretation can increase the cost and duration of hospital stay (Suarez et al, 2016)
  • It may represent an acute coronary syndrome:
    • Sepsis is a high-output cardiac failure state, and may unmask some sort of (previously subclinical) coronary artery disease.
    • Any proinflammatory state can give rise to an increased risk of MI (Donzé et al, 2014)
  • It may identify patients with septic cardiomyopathy:
    • Significant myocardial depression is observed in up to 60% of septic patients (Vieillard-Baron et al , 2008)
    • This may be associated with a raised troponin
    • A raised troponin does not identify patients who need inotropes
  • It may be a predictor of increased mortality:
    • Raised troponin predicts increased mortality,  with a risk ratio of around 1.9. (Sheyin et al, 2015)

Assessment and management plan:

  • History
    • Detailed interrogation of the bedside records to determine whether any critical events had taken place recently, eg. sudden increase in vasopressor doses or episodes of unexplained tachycardia
    • Exploration of the past medical history, specifically looking for previous history of ischaemic heart disease
  • Examination, to look for...
    • New murmurs
    • Features more consistent with cardiac failure than with distributive shock, eg. oedema, pulsatile liver, displaced apex beat, elevated JVP, cool extremities.
  • ECG, to look for...
    • Changes associated with ischaemia, eg. ST segments and T waves
    • New bundle branch block
    • Arrhythmia, eg. new onset AF
  • Biochemistry
    • ABG, to assess for metabolic acidosis (as this can cause myocardial depression)
    • Electrolyte values, to exclude embarrassingly correctable causes of low cardiac output eg. severe ionised hypocalcemia or hypophosphataemia
    • A repeat troponin value, and serial measurements to follow
  • TTE, to assess
    • Global systolic function
    • Regional wall motion
    • Valve function
    • Diastolic function
  • Management:
    • This would depend on the findings of the abovelisted investigations.
    • If the TTE is essentially normal, it may be that no further management is required beyond regular aspirin.
    • If there is global systolic dysfunction, inotropes may be called for. At this stage, one may decide to use some sort of advanced haemodynamic monitor (eg. PA catheter, PiCCO etc) so that one may be better able to titrate their vasoactive drugs.
    • If there are ECG changes and/or regional wall motion abnormalities, one may be able to make a diagnosis of acute MI. This poses several treatment options:
      • Conservative management with antiplatelet drugs and heparin infusion (which may be impossible in the context of severe sepsis, where DIC has already made the patient thrombocytopenic and coagulopathic)
      • Angiography and revascularisation (risky in the context of severe sepsis, particularly insofar as stent deployment is concerned)
      • Coronary artery bypass grafting (essentially out of the question given the severe shock state)

References

Ahmed, Amna N., et al. "Prognostic significance of elevated troponin in non-cardiac hospitalized patients: A systematic review and meta-analysis." Annals of medicine 46.8 (2014): 653-663.

Ammann, P., et al. "Elevation of troponin I in sepsis and septic shock." Intensive care medicine 27.6 (2001): 965-969.

Landesberg, Giora, et al. "Troponin elevation in severe sepsis and septic shock: the role of left ventricular diastolic dysfunction and right ventricular dilatation." Critical care medicine 42.4 (2014): 790-800.

Smith, Andria, et al. "Elevated cardiac troponins in sepsis: what do they signify?." West Virginia Medical Journal 105.4 (2009): 29-33.

Tiruvoipati, Ravindranath, Nasreen Sultana, and David Lewis. "Cardiac troponin I does not independently predict mortality in critically ill patients with severe sepsis." Emergency Medicine Australasia 24.2 (2012): 151-158.

Suarez, Keith, et al. "TROPONIN TESTING IN PATIENTS HOSPITALIZED FOR SEPSIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASED CARDIOVASCULAR TESTING AND LENGTH OF STAY." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 67.13 (2016): 451.

Sheyin, Olusegun, et al. "The prognostic significance of troponin elevation in patients with sepsis: a meta-analysis." Heart & Lung: The Journal of Acute and Critical Care 44.1 (2015): 75-81.

Hunter, J. D., and M. Doddi. "Sepsis and the heart." British journal of anaesthesia 104.1 (2009): 3-11.

Vieillard-Baron, Antoine, et al. "Actual incidence of global left ventricular hypokinesia in adult septic shock." Critical care medicine 36.6 (2008): 1701-1706.

Donzé, Jacques D., et al. "Impact of sepsis on risk of postoperative arterial and venous thromboses: large prospective cohort study." BMJ 349 (2014): g5334.

Question 15.1 - 2017, Paper 2

A 69-year-old male presents with a fractured neck of femur following a syncopal episode. He is now well and has an ECG (Figure 1 shown on page 14) prior to his surgical procedure.

a) What does the ECG show? (10% marks)

trifascicular block

b) What complication is likely to have led to his fall, and how would you manage it? (20% marks) 

College answer

a)

Tri-fascicular block                                          
 
    b)                                                          
•    Cause – Complete heart block 
•    Management – 
o    Correct electrolyte and endocrine abnormalities (e.g. K+, thyroid function tests)
o Consider influence of drug therapies such as digoxin, calcium channel antagonists
o Investigate for ischaemic heart disease 
o    Referral to cardiology unit for further evaluation (?permanent pacemaker) 
 

Discussion

That ECG has just enough movement artifact on it to look "genuine". It is in fact not the original college image (because lawyers, etc) but comes from the authors' own collection, from a patient with a right bundle branch block, LAFB and a PR interval so prolonged that the ECG machine misinterpreted it as AF. The patient also had a serum potassium of around 6.6 mmol/L, which was unhelpful. 

Management of trifascicular block with syncope? The 2008 ACC/AHA/HRS guidelines and their  2012 focused update both recommend:

  • Exclude drugs as the influence on AV conduction (eg. β-blockers)
  • Exclude electrolyte disturbances
  • Consider the prolonged PR interval as the herald of a complete heart block
  • Consider the syncope a sign that intermittent complete heart block is occurring 
  • The presence of syncope and even mere bifascicular block upgrades the class for recommendation for PPM insertion from Class IIa to Class I ("Benefit >>> risk")

References

Question 15.2 - 2017, Paper 2

The ECG (Figure 2 shown on page 15) is of a haemodialysis patient presenting with pulmonary oedema.

hyperkalemia - K+ 7.9 mmol/L

c) What test will you do to confirm the likely underlying diagnosis? (10% marks)

d) What is your immediate management for this condition? (20% marks) 

College answer

c)    Potassium level                                              
 
d)    Counteract cardiotoxic effects of hyperkalaemia                     
•    Calcium chloride 
•    Sodium bicarbonate 
        Shift potassium into the cells 
•    Dextrose and insulin 
•    Beta agonists 
      Remove potassium (and water) 
•    Urgent haemodialysis 
 

Discussion

Classical ECG features of hyperkalemia:

  • Broad QRS complexes 
  • Peaked T waves 
  • No typical bundle branch block pattern 
  • Left axis deviation
  • Long PR interval (if P waves are even visible)
  • Absent P waves (merged with QRS)
  • Absent T-waves (merged with QRS)
  • Ultimately, a "sine wave" ECG.

Montague (2008) found that these were generally unreliable.  The ECG used here is not from the college paper, but rather represents the ECG of an end stage renal failure patient presenting with syncope. The serum potassium level was 7.9.

Management of hyperkalemia is discussed elsewhere. In brief, it consists of the following strategies:

Stabilize myocardial cell membrane:

  • Calcium chloride (10%): 6.8 mmol (10ml) over 2-5 minutes
  • Hypertonic saline (3%): apparently, this has been show to reverse the ECG changes of hyperkalemia, only when there is concurrent hyponatremia.

 Shift potassium into cells:

  • Sodium bicarbonate: 50-100mmol/L, over 5 minutes
  • 50ml of 50% dextrose with 10 units of Actrapid insulin
  • Salbutamol: 2-4 ×salbutamol nebs (5mg each)

Promote potassium excretion:

  • Frusemide 40 to 80 mg IV
  • Cation-exchange resin: AHA recommend "kayexelate", which is the same sodium polystyrene sulfonate which is marketed as "Resonium" in Australia.
    "15 to 50 g per oral or per rectum" is recommended in the AHA text, along with sorbitol (to promote rapid transit, one assumes). Oh's Manual suggests a flat dose of 50g, and does not mention sorbitol.
  • Dialysis is ultimately the most effective clearance mechanism

References

Lavonas, Eric J., et al. "Part 10: Special Circumstances of Resuscitation 2015 American Heart Association Guidelines Update for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Care." Circulation 132.18 suppl 2 (2015): S501-S518.

Weisberg, Lawrence S. "Management of severe hyperkalemia." Critical care medicine 36.12 (2008): 3246-3251.

Montague, Brian T., Jason R. Ouellette, and Gregory K. Buller. "Retrospective review of the frequency of ECG changes in hyperkalemia." Clinical Journal of the American Society of Nephrology 3.2 (2008): 324-330.

Question 15.3 - 2017, Paper 2

The ECG (Figure 3 shown on page 16) is from a 35-year-old male who presents with paroxysmal tachycardia.

e) What condition is demonstrated? Describe the characteristic features. (30% marks)

f) What would be the possible pharmacological options if his tachycardia were to recur?
(10% marks) 

College answer

e)    Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome                                 
•    short PR interval, less than 3 small squares (120 ms) 
•    slurred upstroke to the QRS indicating pre-excitation (delta wave) 
•    broad QRS 
•    secondary ST and T wave changes 
 
f)    IV procainamide or amiodarone is preferred, but any class Ia, class Ic, or class III antiarrhythmic can be used      
 

Discussion

The ECG features of WPS are:

  • The PR interval is short (less than 0.12 seconds)
  • There is a delta wave (a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex)
  • Wide QRS (because the delta wave widens it)
  • ST Segment and T wave discordant changes: T waves point in the opposite direction to the QRS.
  • Pseudo-Q waves: negatively deflected delta waves in the inferior/anterior leads
  • prominent R wave in V1-3 (mimicking posterior infarction).

Management of SVT in this condition:

  • Vagal manoeuvres
  • AVOID AV node blocking drugs such as adenosine, digoxin, beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
  • Procainamide, ibutilide or amiodarone are the only antiarrhytmics useful in WPW. And amiodarone is probably not useful acutely. 
  • DC synchronised cardioversion

Flecainide or propafenone are used in long term management. Amiodarone also OK - but the side effect profile in long term use is not very nice for younger patients. 

In summary, about the management of acute SVT in WPW:

  • Theoretically, AV nodal blockers should be safe in WPW-associated SVT, be it antidromic or orthodromic. If one thinks for a minute about the epidemiology of SVT, one will come to the conclusion that a large proportion of SVT is in fact caused by WPW or some other sort of preexcitaton syndrome, which is usually not known at the time of their first presentation. Many of these people get adenosine, which then reveals their delta waves to the horrified emergency personnel. Most of them do not die of VF. On the basis of this, we may conclude that it is probably reasonably safe.
  • Practically, antidromic SVT in WPW may be difficult to discriminate from AF or VT. Broad complexes and 300+ heart rates could be anything in WPW. Sure, it could be supraventricular, and respond to adenosine. Or it could be AF, and turn into VF. Or it could be VT, which will not benefit from an AV nodal blocker, in which case you have wasted precious time.

On this basis, the authorities tend to recommend the use of Class I or Class III agents instead of AV nodal blockers. The model answer to Question 3.1 from the first paper of 2009 lists procainamide and amiodarone as first-line agents, whereas digoxin and verapamil are contraindicated. Digoxin decreases the refractory period of the accessory pathway and verapimil tends to accelerate the ventricular response to AF by a similar mechanism. Since 2009, public opinion has also drifted away from amiodarone. As an acute infusion it is basically a beta-blocker with some AV nodal specificity. It is therefore the wrong drug for acute management of WPW SVT; or rather, it will probably be safe in the narrow-complex-obviously-orthodromic population, with the aforementioned caveats. In the long term, it becomes more useful, as its Class III and Class I effects begin to develop, slowing conduction down the accessory pathway.

In general:

Pharmacological Peculiarities of WPW
Arrhythmia Drugs contraindicated Drugs Recommended
Orthodromic AVRT  
  • Adenosine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • Procainamide
  • Amiodarone
Antidromic AVRT
  • Adenosine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • β-blockers
  • Digoxin
  • Procainamide
  • Flecainide
  • Propafenone
  • Amiodarone
AF
  • Adenosine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • ß-blockers
  • Digoxin
  • Procainamide
  • Ibutilide
  • Dofelitide
  • Flecainide
  • Amiodarone

In case you were wondering, WPW patients die sudden cardiac deaths when they develop AF, which is conducted rapidly and erratically through their aberrant pathway, producing VF (Obeyeseker et al, 2012)

Some might ask: why don’t the college want us to just give adenosine for what is likely to be standard narrow-complex-obviously-orthodromic arrhythmias? AHA and UpToDate agree: you treat them as per usual. However, the problem is that you can never exactly know that the SVT is definitely orthodromic. As far as is possible to tell, the recommendation to use procainamide is there as a guideline-maker’s safeguard to protect patients against a mistakenly unrecognised antidromic SVT. They say, “AV node-specific blocking drugs such as adenosine, verapamil, and beta blockers should be avoided unless the tachycardia is definitely known to be antidromic AVRT.” As one can never definitely know that the tachycardia is, to always use the safe agent seems like the right option. To do otherwise may invite weird bedside arguments about the width of QRS complexes.  

With regards to amiodarone, as an acute infusion it is basically a beta-blocker with some AV nodal specificity. It is therefore the wrong drug for acute management of WPW SVT; or rather, it will probably be safe in the narrow-complex-obviously-orthodromic population, with the aforementioned caveats. In the long term, it becomes more useful, as its Class III and Class I effects begin to develop, slowing conduction down the accessory pathway.

References

Wellens, Hein JJ, and Dirk Durrer. "Effect of digitalis on atrioventricular conduction and circus-movement tachycardias in patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." Professor Hein JJ Wellens. Springer Netherlands, 2000. 63-68.

Gulamhusein, S. A. J. A. D., et al. "Acceleration of the ventricular response during atrial fibrillation in the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome after verapamil."Circulation 65.2 (1982): 348-354.

Munger, T. M., et al. "A population study of the natural history of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome in Olmsted County, Minnesota, 1953-1989."Circulation 87.3 (1993): 866-873.

Svenson, ROBERT H., et al. "Electrophysiological evaluation of the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome: problems in assessing antegrade and retrograde conduction over the accessory pathway." Circulation 52.4 (1975): 552-562.

Narula, Onkar S. "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome A Review." Circulation 47.4 (1973): 872-887.

and, somewhat more recently...

Scheinman, Melvin M. "History of Wolff‐Parkinson‐White Syndrome." Pacing and clinical electrophysiology 28.2 (2005): 152-156.

Keating, L., F. P. Morris, and W. J. Brady. "Electrocardiographic features of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." Emergency medicine journal 20.5 (2003): 491-493.

Obeyesekere, Manoj, et al. "Risk of sudden death in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome: how high is the risk?." (2012): 659-660.

Luigi Di Biase, M. D., Edward P. Walsh, and Bradley P. Knight. "Treatment of symptomatic arrhythmias associated with the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome." UpTo Date

Question 30.1 - 2017, Paper 2

a) List the ECG criteria that are helpful in distinguishing ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction. For each listed criterion, indicate which diagnosis it makes more likely. (30% marks)

b) List the specific management strategies that may be used to treat torsades de pointes. (30% marks)
 

College answer

a)                                                         
•    Capture beats: VT 
•    Fusion beats: VT 
•    Concordance in chest leads (or absence of RS complex): VT 
•    Typical RBBB or LBBB morphology: SVT 
•    R to S interval >100ms: VT 
 
(Note: there are some more specific criteria from diagnostic algorithms – if correct these should receive credit.) 
b)                                                          
•    Correction of electrolyte abnormalities or hypothermia 
•    Magnesium 
•    Isoprenaline 
•    Phenytoin 
•    Sodium Bicarbonate 
•    Lignocaine 
•    Electrical cardioversion 
•    Atrial overdrive pacing 
•    Cessation of provoking drugs 
 

Discussion

Some of the criteria are somewhat duplicated because the features are listed according to the society guideline being quoted. It makes sense that most of the guideline-makers would agree on such obvious things as "wide QRS" and "regular", etc.

How to Tell VT from SVT with Aberrancy
Criterion Findings associated with SVT Findings associated with VT
ACC/AHA Guidelines (2003)
QRS duration <120 msec > 120 msec
Rhythm Irregular Regular
A-V relationship Atrial rate faster than ventricular rate Ventricular rate faster than atrial rate
Axis Normal, right or left axis Bizarre axis (+90 to -90)
QRS morphology in the precordial leads Typical RBBB or LBBB Concordance; no R/S pattern; onset of R to nadir is longer than 100 msec.

In RBBB pattern: 
- qR, Rs or Rr patter in V1

In LBBB pattern:
- R in V1 longer than 30msec
- R to nadir of S in V1 longer than 60 msec
- qR or qS in V6
     
Brugada algorithm (1991)
RS complex in precordial leads Present Absent
R-S interval in one precordial lead <100 msec >100 msec
A-V relationship Associated Dissociated
QRS morphology criteria for VT Not met Met
Brugada QRS morphology criteria for LBBB pattern
Initial R period <100 msec >100 msec
S-wave  in
V1 or V2
Normal downwards leg Slurred or notched downwards leg
Q to nadir QS in V1 or V2 <100 msec >100 msec
Q or QS in V6 Absent Present
Brugada QRS morphology criteria for RBBB pattern
R or qR in V1 Normal Monophasic
R to R' size  R shorter than R' R taller than R'
R in V6 No Rs Rs present in V6
Vereckei algorithm (2007)
A-V relationship Associated Dissociated
R in aVR Absent Present
QRS morphology Like a RBBB or LBBB Unlike RBBB or LBBB
Vi/Vt V(initial QRS upstroke y-axis distance during the first 40 msec) is greater than V(terminal QRS downstroke y-axis distance during the last 40 msec of the QRS) Vi is smaller than Vt

Management of torsades is somewhat less complex. Thomas and Behr (2015) have published a good article which describes the management strategies for torsades:

  • Preventative strategies
    • Stop the QT-prolonging drugs
    • Keep the serum K+ around 4.7 - 5.2 mmol/L
  • Immediate treatment
    • IV magnesium sulfate
    • Isoprenaline (to increase heart rate to 100-110)
    • Overdrive pacing
    • Lignocaine
  • Experimental treatments and last resort measures
    • Clonidine
    • Ranolazine

References

Question 6 - 2018, Paper 1

With respect to neurological recovery after out of hospital cardiac arrest, discuss the factors which may confound prognostication and how they can be minimised.

College answer

General 

  • Testing too early (esp. before 72 hrs) is unreliable
  • Hypothermia and sedative/ relaxants confound most tests
  • Associated organ impairments (renal, hepatic) may delay sedative drug clearance and cause encephalopathy
  • Seizures (convulsive or non-convulsive)
  • Many studies done were not blinded – risk of self-fulfilling prophesy

Clinical: 

  • Pupil responses may be underestimated cf. pupilometer
  • Pre-existing ocular pathology – e.g. cataracts, blindness
  • Recent use of high dose adrenaline, eye drops 
  • Corneal reflex- Less specific than pupil response
  • Motor responses before 72 hrs unreliable
  • Status myoclonus is poorly defined
  • Lance-Adams syndrome of awake myoclonus not predictive
  • Pre-existing weakness or other pathologies

Electrophysiological: 

  • Background signal noise may cause false positives.
  • Lack of standardisation in measurement
  • Electrode placement may be inconsistent
  • Poorly defined endpoints

Radiology

  • Brain imaging studies are substantially effected by timing of the study as changes evolve over time. All imaging studies limited by small sample size and selection bias.

Biomarkers: 

  • Threshold values for and timing not well established
  • Measurement and other tissue confounders not well established e.g. in haemolysis. Poorly defined endpoints

Minimising the confounders

  • Define the context/ exclude other causes of unconsciousness
  • Caution with renal or hepatic impairment
  • Knowledge of any pre-existing pathologies from history
  • Waiting at least 72 hrs longer before testing if hypothermia/ sedation/ relaxant
  • Multiple modality testing is more reliable than single tests
  • Repeated observation especially when patient is hypothermic/ recent sedation or there is doubt Most unconscious patients will recover within 5 days and nearly all by 8 days.
  • Skill in interpretation is required for most test especially electrophysiology and imaging
  • Use of TOF to exclude paralysis
  • Be aware of the risk of self-fulfilling prophesy.

Examiners Comments:

Overall poorly answered with limited detail and little attention paid to the factors which confound prognostication.

Discussion

This question has apppeared many times before in varying forms. This incarnation most closely resembles Question 4 from the second paper of 2014. This time, of the confounding factors,  the college also asked "and how they can be minimised". The table below was plagiarised from the chapter on prognostication after cardiac arrest, with little modification

Predictive sign or investigation Confounding factors Strategies to minimise confounding factors
Absent pupillary reflex
  • Sedation
  • Hypothermia
  • Paralysis
  • Presence of shock
  • Metabolic derangements, eg. acidosis
  • Cease sedation/paralysis
  • Ensure normal vital signs
  • Correct metabolic derangement before testing
  • Wait 72 hours after hypothermia/paralysis to exclude drug effects
  • Test train-of-four (TOF) to exclude paralysis
Absent corneal reflex
Extensor motor response, or worse
  • High false positive rate (~50%)
  • Repeat multiple observations over time
  • Wait 72 hours (false positive rrate decreases after that)
  • Use this finding together with other, more robust markers
Myoclonic status epilepticus
  • Interpreter-dependent
  • Findings may be subtle
  • Paralysis interferes with interpretation
  • Repeat multiple observations over time
Somatosensory evoked potentials:
absence of the N20 component
  • Wait after 72 hours (more accurate prognostically)
Burst suppression on EEG
  •  Poor predicitive value; cannot be used for prognostication.
  • Don't include this in the prognostication
Absence of EEG reactivity
  • Confounded by sedation
  • Wait 72 hours, until sedation and hypothermia have worn off
Neuron-specific enolase
  • Don't include this in the prognostication
CT brain
  • If performed too early, the CT may not demonstrate any findings.
  • Wait 72 hours for CT findings to develop

References

Engdahl, Johan, et al. "Can we define patients with no and those with some chance of survival when found in asystole out of hospital?." The American journal of cardiology 86.6 (2000): 610-614.

Bunch, T. Jared, et al. "Outcomes and in-hospital treatment of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest patients resuscitated from ventricular fibrillation by early defibrillation." Mayo Clinic Proceedings. Vol. 79. No. 5. Elsevier, 2004.

Levine, Robert L., Marvin A. Wayne, and Charles C. Miller. "End-tidal carbon dioxide and outcome of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." New England Journal of Medicine 337.5 (1997): 301-306.

Rea, Thomas D., et al. "Temporal Trends in Sudden Cardiac Arrest A 25-Year Emergency Medical Services Perspective." Circulation 107.22 (2003): 2780-2785.

Carew, Heather T., Weiya Zhang, and Thomas D. Rea. "Chronic health conditions and survival after out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest." Heart 93.6 (2007): 728-731.

Goldberger, Zachary D., et al. "Duration of resuscitation efforts and survival after in-hospital cardiac arrest: an observational study." The Lancet (2012).

Wijdicks, E. F. M., et al. "Practice Parameter: Prediction of outcome in comatose survivors after cardiopulmonary resuscitation (an evidence-based review) Report of the Quality Standards Subcommittee of the American Academy of Neurology."Neurology 67.2 (2006): 203-210.

Rogove, Herbert J., et al. "Old age does not negate good cerebral outcome after cardiopulmonary resuscitation: analyses from the brain resuscitation clinical trials."Critical care medicine 23.1 (1995): 18-25.

LEVY, DE, et al. "Predicting Outcome from Hypoxic-Ischemic Coma." Survey of Anesthesiology 30.2 (1986): 93.

Sandroni, Claudio, et al. "Prognostication in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest: an advisory statement from the European Resuscitation Council and the European Society of Intensive Care Medicine." Resuscitation 85.12 (2014): 1779-1789.

Greer, David M., et al. "Clinical examination for prognostication in comatose cardiac arrest patients."Resuscitation 84.11 (2013): 1546-1551.

Lee, Ha Lim, and Ju Kang Lee. "Lance-adams syndrome." Annals of rehabilitation medicine 35.6 (2011): 939-943.

Bouwes, Aline, et al. "Acute posthypoxic myoclonus after cardiopulmonary resuscitation." BMC neurology 12.1 (2012): 63.

Stammet, Pascal, et al. "Neuron-specific enolase as a predictor of death or poor neurological outcome after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and targeted temperature management at 33 C and 36 C." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 65.19 (2015): 2104-2114.

Golan, Eyal, et al. "Predicting Neurologic Outcome After Targeted Temperature Management for Cardiac Arrest: Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis*." Critical care medicine 42.8 (2014): 1919-1930.

Howes, Daniel, et al. "Canadian Guidelines for the use of targeted temperature management (therapeutic hypothermia) after cardiac arrest: A joint statement from The Canadian Critical Care Society (CCCS), Canadian Neurocritical Care Society (CNCCS), and the Canadian Critical Care Trials Group (CCCTG)." Resuscitation 98 (2016): 48-63.

Question 15.1 - 2018, Paper 1

At an emergency call a patient has a sudden loss of consciousness and her ECG is as seen on page 14.

a) What is your diagnosis?    (10% marks)
b) What risk factors could precipitate this arrhythmia?    (10% marks)
c) How will you manage the patient?    (30% marks)
 

College answer

a) 
Torsade de pointes/ VT triggered by a R on T phenomenon 
 
b) 
Congenital Long QT syndromes 
Acquired long QT 
     Drugs 
     Hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia 
     MI, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy 
     SAH 
     Female gender 
     Bradycardia 
 
c) 
Assess ABC, ALS algorithm, unsynchronized defibrillation. Magnesium. Prevent recurrence by pacing or isoprenaline to increase the heart rate to a level that prevents further torsade. 
 

Discussion

The official college ECG image is of course not available, and in most such cases the reader needs to acknowledge the possibility that the author has substituted something completely different to the official college paper. Fortunately, this time examiners made the mistake of leaving a faint "e-cardiogram.com" watermark on their paper, which makes it possible for track down their source to this page, where a detailed exploration of "tachycardie ventriculaire polymorphe" takes place. This file (torsades-de-pointes-web-free.jpg) has been reproduced multiple times, and appears to be something of a classic.

a) What is your diagnosis?   To be perfectly precise, that would have to be "Polymorphic VT". If the complexes clearly demonstrated a rotation around an isoelectric point "Torsades des Pointes" would also be reasonable, especially given the file name, and the fact that the one visible normal-looking QRS complex appears to have a relatively long-looking QT interval. The fact that the VT begins during the T-wave suggests that the R-on-T phenomenon is responsible. For 10% of the total SAQ marks, no more detail would be expected. Given that the patient has lost consciousness, "cardiac arrest" is another potentially valid way to describe the situation.

b) is also a 10% question. "What risk factors could precipitate this arrhythmia?" Generally speaking, non-Torsades VT is associated with organic and structural heart disease, whereas Torsades tends to be related to molecular and channel related problems.

  • Acute coronary ischaemia
  • Long QT (congenital or acquired)
  • Brugada syndrome
  • Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT
  • Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia (ARVD)
  • Cardiomyopathy of any cause
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypomagnesemia

c) How will you manage the patient? 

Thomas and Behr (2015) have published a good article which describes the management strategies for Torsades, which is also helpful for people trying to answer part (b) of Question 30.1 from the second paper of 2017. In short:

  • Preventative strategies
    • Stop the QT-prolonging drugs
    • Keep the serum K+ around 4.7 - 5.2 mmol/L
  • Immediate treatment
    • IV magnesium sulfate
    • Isoprenaline (to increase heart rate to 100-110)
    • Overdrive pacing
    • Lignocaine
  • Experimental treatments and last resort measures
    • Clonidine
    • Ranolazine

References

Priori, Silvia G., et al. "Clinical and molecular characterization of patients with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.Circulation 106.1 (2002): 69-74.

Koplan, Bruce A., and William G. Stevenson. "Ventricular tachycardia and sudden cardiac death." Mayo clinic proceedings. Vol. 84. No. 3. Elsevier, 2009.

John, Roy M., et al. "Ventricular arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death." The Lancet 380.9852 (2012): 1520-1529.

Pelosi, Frank, et al. "Effect of chronic amiodarone therapy on defibrillation energy requirements in humans." Journal of cardiovascular electrophysiology 11.7 (2000): 736-740.

Members, Committee, et al. "ACC/AHA/ESC guidelines for the management of patients with supraventricular arrhythmias—executive summary: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines and the European Society of Cardiology Committee for Practice Guidelines (Writing Committee to Develop Guidelines for the Management of Patients with Supraventricular Arrhythmias) developed in collaboration with NASPE-Heart Rhythm Society." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 42.8 (2003): 1493-1531.

Brugada, Pedro, et al. "A new approach to the differential diagnosis of a regular tachycardia with a wide QRS complex." Circulation 83.5 (1991): 1649-1659.

Vereckei, András, et al. "Application of a new algorithm in the differential diagnosis of wide QRS complex tachycardia." European heart journal 28.5 (2007): 589-600.

Thomas, Simon HL, and Elijah R. Behr. "Pharmacological treatment of acquired QT prolongation and torsades de pointes." British journal of clinical pharmacology 81.3 (2016): 420-427.

Question 15.2 - 2018, Paper 1

A 45-year-old male post-cholecystectomy for acute gangrenous cholecystitis complains of palpitations.

a) Interpret this ECG.    (10% marks)
b) Outline your management principles.    (40% marks)
 

College answer

a) 
This ECG shows a broad complex, regular tachycardia at a rate of 230 with no apparent P waves. This could be either a VT or SVT with aberrant conduction. 
 
b) 
Check effect of this tachycardia on the patient’s haemodynamics: BP, perfusion, SpO2 
If haemodynamics compromised treat urgently with synchronized cardioversion following ALS principles and guidelines. 
 
If haemodynamics not compromised: 
Check a previous ECG for evidence of a conduction defect 
Correct electrolyte abnormalities 
Move patient to a monitored environment (CCU/ICU) 
Slow rate down with adenosine. If this is a SVT with aberrancy we might see underlying rhythm/conduction abnormality. VT will not slow down with adenosine. Anti-arrhythmic therapy: Amiodarone if unsure re VT?SVT 
 

Discussion

That ECG comes from the ACLS Medical training website blog, from a June 2016 post titled "SVT with Aberrancy or Ventricular Tachycardia?"  It is remarkably similar to the official college ECG  because the college examiners must have performed the same Google image search. 

The blog post comments on this image: 

"There is a regular wide complex tachycardia at a rate of about 230 without sinus P waves. There is a LBBB pattern in lead V1. However, we would not consider this to be a “typical” LBBB pattern due to the normal axis in the frontal plane and the presence of a small S-wave in lead I."

The management according to the ALS algorithm (ARC Guideline 11.9) depends on whether the patient is compromised by this rhythm. "Compromised" in this context means "about to die" or "already dead". The immediate assessment would be to check for signs of life and a pulse. The patient in the SAQ does not sound as if he requires immediate CPR, because he is complaining of palpitations. One would therefore look for the following features to determine the need for synchronised cardioversion:

  • Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
  • Heart rate > 150/min
  • Chest pain
  • Heart failure
  • Drowsiness or confusion

If none of these are present, one has some time to think, have a cup of coffee while looking over the old ECGs, and argue with the CCU staff about whose job it is to look after this patient ("but he's surgical!"). Certainly, SVT with aberrancy might be an explanation for this, but the ARC recommends treating all such broad complex tachycardias as VT, because treating an SVT as VT is less likely to cause deterioration than treating VT as SVT. Given that it is regular, the official ARC recommendation is to give amiodarone 300mg over 20-60 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900mg over 24 hours. Amiodarone is a good "broad spectrum antiarrhythmic", as it treats both VT and SVT. Lam & Saba (2002) also point out that procainamide is indicated, but may not be suitable because it causes hypotension with rapid administration (moreover it is not available in Australia). The ARC do not mention adenosine in their pathways for broad-complex tachyarrhythmias.

The blog post which serves as the source for this ECG appears to be reporting a real patient case. They gave the patient 150mg amiodarone over 10 minutes. "A rhythm change is noted and the following 12-lead ECG is obtained":

"Now there is sinus tachycardia with virtually identical QRS morphology ... It is safe to conclude that this patient had a conduction defect at baseline, which is what caused the complexes to be wide during the tachycardia." 

References

Lam, Patrick, and Samir Saba. "Approach to the evaluation and management of wide complex tachycardias." Indian pacing and electrophysiology journal 2.4 (2002): 120.

Question 18 - 2018, Paper 1

"All patients with return of spontaneous circulation after out of hospital cardiac arrest should have an urgent cardiac catheterisation, including patients with normal post resuscitation ECGs."

What are the pros and cons of this approach?

College answer

Pros 
a.    In the presence of ST elevation post OHCA (Out of Hospital Cardiac Arrest) all patients without absolute contra-indications should go to cath lab 
b.    Patients without clear symptoms or signs of ischaemia may still have had an ischaemic cause for arrest. Case series and registries of OHCA have suggested that 1/4 cases taken to cab lab with no ECG evidence of ischemia will have lesions requiring treatment. Treatment in these patients will lead to a 60% survival improvement with a 90% chance of good neurological recovery. Most studies have published a number needed to treat of 4 to prevent one death with a 90% chance of good neurological recovery. 
c.    Current recommendations from the American Heart Association suggest that any OHCA with 
ROSC should go to cath lab if ischemia is suspected 
d.    Transfer to cath lab with treatment may prevent further cardiac arrests 
e.    Professional (American Heart Association and European Resuscitation council) bodies who have made recommendations say there is no role in waiting to assess neurological recovery 

Cons 
a.    These may be unstable patients  
b.    The cath lab maybe isolated from other emergency services and take staff away from ED or ICU 
c.    Transfer to another centre may be required 
d.    Experienced staff are required to anaesthetize a patient undergoing coronary angioplasty or stenting. 
e.    Taking all comers to cath lab may lead to many poor outcomes due to high pre OHCA morbidities. 
f.    Many patients may be taken after prolonged cardiac arrest who may go onto survive with poor neurological recovery 
g.    There are financial consequences to running a 24-hour cath lab service 
h.    If there is another explanation for the cardiac arrest the time in the catheter lab maybe detrimental to the patient 
i.    Anti-coagulation and anti-platelet medications may increase the risk of haemorrhage  
j.    Difficulty with targeted temperature management in cath lab environment 
 
Examiner Comments: 
 
Overall reasonable answers. Not a great deal of reference to guidelines, and the “pro” side was not as well answered as the “con”. 

 

Discussion

The excellent powerpoint presentation by Georg Furnau Luebeck for the European Society of Cardiology is a good starting point to look for references. Some of the best review of the most important arguments for and against angiography in unselected cardiac arrest patients can be found in the paper on the study design of the COACT trial by Lemkes et al (2016).

Pros:

  • Angiography for all would pick up coronary artery disease which would otherwise be missed:
    • ST changes in the ECG post arrest are difficult to interpret 
    • History of chest pain may not be available
    • There is often coronary disease without ECG changes: of the patients who had no ECG changes, Hollenbeck et al (2014) found an acute thrombotic coronary occlusion in 26%.
  • To exclude coronary artery disease is an important step in the process of determining the causes of the cardiac arrest
  • Patients undergoing angiography receive a "greater intensity of care" (Lemkes et al, 2016) - they are resuscitated more aggressively, get seen by more doctors, receive early anticoagulation and have more mechanical / pharmacological support, which could translate into better outcomes.
  • Multiple studies have demonstrated improved outcomes in patients who had no ST changes and who ended up having a PCI for a clinically significant stenosis (Spaulding et al, 1997Dumas et al, 2010)
  • There is society support for this practice (AHA/ACC, ESC/ERC)

Cons

  • Cardiac arrest is not uniformly a phenomenon of coronary artery disease, i.e. there are many noncardiac causes, of which several (eg. SAH) would surely not benefit from the obligatory loading doses of dual antiplatelets. This is an argument against immediately rushing to the cath lab.
  • Angiography may exacerbate the acute kidney injury which often accompanies the post-resuscitation syndrome, mainly by means of a contrast load.
  • Even where there is coronary artery disease, not all patients can be stented, and the survival benefit of angiography seems to be limited to those patients in whom stenting was successful. In about 25% of patients undergoing PCI, there is either no lesion or a non-stentable lesion, even when there are ST changes (and if there aren't, that proportion rises to 75%) according to Dumas et al (2010)
  • Even where there is stentable disease, there may be no mortality benefit to stenting it, because outcome depends more on the global ischaemic damage from "down-time" than the events in local coronary territories. SWEDEHEART study (Wester et al, 2018) certainly did not find any mortality difference between patients who had early PCI versus those who did not, even though 43% of the patients were found to have 90% stenosis in one of their vessels.
  • If stenting is so good for outcomes, then stenting all the lesions should give maximal benefit - but in fact it seems the fewer stents you do, the better. The CULPRIT-SHOCK trial (Thiele et al, 2017) found improvement in mortality if the angiographer limited their post-arrest intervention to just the culprit lesion, with both mortality and risk of AKI
  • Even when there is coronary artery disease, and where you end up stenting it immediately, there does not appear to be a substantial survival benefit. The COACT trial from the Netherlands (Lemkes et al, 2019) found that immediate angiography following cardiac arrest without ST elevation did not improve survival at 90 days. Unlike the PROCAT registry, only 20% of the COACT patients had an acute coronary lesion (33% in the "immediate angiography" group).   

What's happened since the last time this appeared in 2018?

  • Jentzer et al published a trial in (2018), specifically in February of 2018 (i.e. long after the examiners would have stopped thinking about this question paper, but before was inflicted on the trainees in March). Survival was much better in the angio group (56.2% vs 31%) as was the neurological outcome (28% vs 11%). However, 
  • Verma (2020) performed a meta-analysis of about 3500 patients, and found little difference in mortality or outcome; rather, the 30-day mortality was more related to the presentation comorbidities 
  • Song et al (2021) used the GRACE risk score and found that patients with a high score (i.e. old age, history of CCf or MI, tachycardia or hypotensive, with ST-segment depression, AKI, raise cardiac enzymes) seem to have some survival benefit from early angiography
  • TOMAHAWK trial (Desch et al, 2021) did not find any benefit if the patient was haemodynamically or electrically stable.

References

Lemkes, Jorrit S., et al. "Coronary angiography after cardiac arrest: Rationale and design of the COACT trial.American heart journal 180 (2016): 39-45.

Spaulding, Christian M., et al. "Immediate coronary angiography in survivors of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." New England Journal of Medicine 336.23 (1997): 1629-1633.

Hollenbeck, Ryan D., et al. "Early cardiac catheterization is associated with improved survival in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest without STEMI." Resuscitation 85.1 (2014): 88-95.

Dumas, Florence, et al. "Immediate Percutaneous Coronary Intervention Is Associated With Better Survival After Out-of-Hospital Cardiac ArrestClinical Perspective: Insights From the PROCAT (Parisian Region Out of Hospital Cardiac Arrest) Registry.Circulation: Cardiovascular Interventions 3.3 (2010): 200-207.

Geri, Guillaume, et al. "Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention is associated with improved short-and long-term survival after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." Circulation: Cardiovascular Interventions 8.10 (2015): e002303.

Callaway, Clifton W., et al. "Part 8: post–cardiac arrest care: 2015 American Heart Association guidelines update for cardiopulmonary resuscitation and emergency cardiovascular care." Circulation 132.18 suppl 2 (2015): S465-S482.

Nolan, Jerry P., et al. "European resuscitation council and european society of intensive care medicine guidelines for post-resuscitation care 2015: section 5 of the european resuscitation council guidelines for resuscitation 2015." Resuscitation 95 (2015): 202-222.

Wester, Axel, et al. "Coronary angiographic findings and outcomes in patients with sudden cardiac arrest without ST-elevation myocardial infarction: A SWEDEHEART study." Resuscitation 126 (2018): 172-178.

Jentzer, Jacob C., et al. "Early coronary angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention are associated with improved outcomes after out of hospital cardiac arrest." Resuscitation 123 (2018): 15-21.

Verma, Beni R., et al. "Coronary angiography in patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest without ST-segment elevation: a systematic review and meta-analysis." Cardiovascular Interventions 13.19 (2020): 2193-2205.

Song, Hwan, et al. "Which Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest Patients without ST-Segment Elevation Benefit from Early Coronary Angiography? Results from the Korean Hypothermia Network Prospective Registry." Journal of Clinical Medicine 10.3 (2021): 439.

Desch, Steffen, et al. "Angiography after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest without ST-segment elevation." New England Journal of Medicine 385.27 (2021): 2544-2553.

Question 28 - 2018, Paper 1

A 35-year-old female is admitted to your ICU with community acquired pneumonia requiring 60% inspired oxygen via facemask. She is previously quite fit and well, and is currently 32 weeks pregnant.

Forty-eight hours later, she suffers a pulseless electrical activity (PEA) arrest.

a) What is your differential diagnosis?     (30% marks)

b) Outline factors that may make successful resuscitation of this woman more challenging.(40% marks)

c) What specific alterations would you make to the standard ALS algorithm in this woman? Justify your answer. (30% marks)

College answer

)

Pulmonary Embolism (must state this to gain any marks in this section)

Severe Hypoxaemia (airway obstruction/lung collapse/aspiration/AFE [see below])

Amniotic Fluid Embolism 

Coronary ischaemia 

Tension pneumothorax / Tamponade (potentially post CVC etc., spontaneous unlikely)

 ‘Iatrogenic’ catastrophe/other: air embolism, drug error, anaphylaxis etc.

Hypovolemia (unlikely unless massive concealed bleed but possible), placental abruption

b)

Factors relate to the underlying cause of arrest, the woman’s state pre-arrest, the physiological changes of pregnancy and the presence of a gravid uterus/unborn fetus.

Underlying cause of arrest

Lack of a rapidly reversible cause such as pneumothorax /airway obstruction.

Woman’s state pre-arrest

Severe pre-existing/worsening hypoxaemia

Physiological Changes of Pregnancy

Airway oedema and increased incidence of difficult airway and airway bleeding, high oxygen consumption and increased minute ventilation, reduced FRC, increased risk of aspiration, supine hypotensive syndrome [aortocaval syndrome], procoagulant state, chest compressions may be challenging with obesity/breast enlargement

Presence of gravid uterus/unborn fetus

Prevention of supine hypotensive syndrome [aortocaval syndrome] requires lateral tilt but chest compressions should be performed supine with manual displacement of uterus [AHA rec: see below], reduced diaphragmatic excursion due to presence of uterus with reduced FRC, poor ECHO windows especially subcostal, need for resuscitative hysterotomy and potential simultaneous neonatal resuscitation, potential for delay/hesitation in delivering indicated treatment e.g. antiarrhythmics, thrombolysis, extracorporeal support due to concerns regarding pregnancy.

c)

Main differences are

10-15 degrees of lateral tilt during chest compressions to avoid aortocaval compression or continuous lateral uterine displacement (LUD).

Early perimortem caesarean section

Early intubation

Examiners Comments:

 

Candidates often gave a routine list for cardiac arrest causes (Hs and Ts) without much specific consideration of situation. Almost no consideration given to underlying cause and pre-arrest condition of patient as factors making successful resuscitation challenging. Often no justification given for alterations to ALS algorithm

Discussion

a)

To counter the examiners' comments, one might present them with a "routine list of cardiac arrest causes" which relates the 4 Hs and 4 Ts to the specific scenario. Thus:

  • Hypoxia  due to
    • Aspiration
    • Community-acquired pneumonia (it's what the patient presented with)
    • Airway loss during seizures (eclampsia)
    • Pulmonary oedema due to peripartum cardiomyopathy or preeclampsia
  • Hypovolemia (or distributive shock, or cardiogenic shock )
    • Purpueral sepsis
    • Septic abortion
    • Haemorrhage (eg placental abruption or liver rupture)
    • Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
    • Peripartum cardiomyopathy
    • Exacerbation of pre-existing cardiac disease (eg. mitral stenosis)
  • Tension pneumothorax 
    • due to positive pressure ventilation or CVC insertion
  • Tamponade
    • due to pericardial fluid collection
  • Toxins,  including
    • intentional overdose
    • Iatrogenic overdose (eg. accidental bolus infusion of magnesium sulfate)
  • Thrombus which includes all embolic phenomena:
    • Pulmonary embolism (which we must mention)
    • Amniotic fluid embolism 
    • Air embolism

b) 

The "factors that may make successful resuscitation of this woman more challenging" is a strangely worded question, as it could be interpreted as almost anything. The examiner's comments about how disappointing it was that the trainees didn't give enough attention to "underlying cause and pre-arrest condition of patient" are rendered all the more bizarre given that the presented pre-arrest history of the scenario was hardly sufficient to make any judgments about the challenging aspects of the specific situation. We know that she is very pregnant, hypoxic, and previously healthy. Almost everything else is left up to the imagination  (eg. are we resuscitating her in a narrow corridor? Has the registrar had enough sleep? Is this a small regional hospital with a single GP anaesthetist? Are you the baby's father?). As such, one must reinterpret the question as "what features of third trimester pregnancy make it more difficult to successfully resuscitate a pregnant patient from cardiac arrest?"

These features can be separated into categories:

Airway issues

  • Difficult intubation (for various reasons)
  • Increased risk of aspiration
  • Decreased FRC makes respiratory decompensation more rapid, and makes airway access more urgent (though, some might say, the patient has arrested - how much more urgent could it get)

Breathing issues

  • On the list of differentials are amniotic fluid embolism and pulmonary embolism, which are problems with no real immediate reversible solution in the arrest scenario.
  • Oxygen consumption increased
  • Foetal oxygenation needs to be considered
  • If tension pneumothorax is for some reason a serious differential, the chest drains need to be placed higher because of the displacement of the diaphragm by the gravid uterus

Circulatory issues

  • Venous return impaired by gravid uterus
  • Placental arteries are more sensitive to catecholamines, and will constrict when you start giving large boluses of adrenaline
  • Trans-thoracic echocardiography during CPR will be difficult if not impossible, because of the problematic subcostal view

Disability issues

  • If the patient had eclampsia-related seizures and has arrested because of this, it will not be immediately apparent to the rescuers (i.e. the clues may not be obvious, eg. incontinence and a bitten tongue may go unnoticed in the melee of resuscitation)

Performance issues

  • Though it seems an unusual thing to mention specifically as a hindrance to the normal process of resuscitation, the college in their answer mention "potential for delay/hesitation in delivering indicated treatment e.g. antiarrhythmics, thrombolysis, extracorporeal support due to concerns regarding pregnancy",  which implies that a necessary consideration in resuscitating a pregnant arrest patient is the possibility that your team will refuse to carry out your order to give adrenaline or amiodarone. If your grasp of the reigns of leadership is indeed so tenuous in this arrest, it is unclear why this comment is limited to antiarrhythmics, thrombolysis and ECMO, as the staff would probably not follow any of your other orders either.

c)

The main differences to the ALS algorithm are:

  • Manually displace the uterus to the left (off the aorta and vena cava)
  • Add a left lateral tilt (the ideal angle is unknown, and is thought to be between 15° and 30°)
  • Biaxillary defibrillator pad placement may be considered. Anterolateral pad placement requires the lateral pad to go under the breast rather than over it. 
  • Early intubation is mentioned in the college answer, and is therefore the definitive opinion of the examiners, but it does not appear in any of the guidelines. Jeejeebhoy et al (2015), in the AHA scientific statement on this issue, did not mention anything about early intubation, though airway management is otherwise made much of. 
  • Prepare for an emergency perimortem caesarian.

References

Einav, Sharon, Nechama Kaufman, and Hen Y. Sela. "Maternal cardiac arrest and perimortem caesarean delivery: evidence or expert-based?." Resuscitation 83.10 (2012): 1191-1200.

Morris Jr, John A., et al. "Infant survival after cesarean section for trauma." Annals of surgery 223.5 (1996): 481.

Beckett, V. A., P. Sharpe, and M. Knight. "CAPS—A UKOSS STUDY OF CARDIAC ARREST IN PREGNANCY AND THE USE OF PERI-MORTEM CAESAREAN SECTION. IMPLICATIONS FOR THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT." Emergency Medicine Journal 32.12 (2015): 995-995.

Elkady, A. A. "Peri-mortem Caesarean Section Delivery: A Literature Review and Comprehensive Overview." Enliven: Gynecol Obstet 2.3 (2015): 005.

Campbell, Tabitha A., and Tracy G. Sanson. "Cardiac arrest and pregnancy." Journal of emergencies, trauma, and shock 2.1 (2009): 34.

Katz, Vern L., Deborah J. Dotters, and William Droegemueller. "Perimortem cesarean delivery." Obstetrics & Gynecology 68.4 (1986): 571-576.

Manner, Richard L. "Court-Ordered Surgery for the Protection of a Viable Fetus:, 247 6a. 8b, 274 SE 2d 457 (1981)." (1982).

Jeejeebhoy, Farida M., et al. "Cardiac arrest in pregnancy: a scientific statement from the American Heart Association." Circulation (2015): CIR-0000000000000300.

Question 5 - 2018, Paper 2

List the findings, advantages and disadvantages of the following methods of assessment in a patient with right ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension: 
 
a)    Clinical bedside Assessment.                           (30% marks) 
 
b)    Transthoracic Echo.                                         (40% marks) 
 
c)    Pulmonary Artery Catheter.                             (30% marks) 

College answer

Findings:

  • Raised JVP with prominent A wave, pulsatile liver. 
  • Loud P2, RV/parasternal heave
  • TR murmur
  • Bilateral Peripheral edema
  • Hypotension if severe 

Advantages

  • Quick
  • Simple
  • Cheap
  • Non-invasive

Disadvantages

  • Poor reproducibility
  • Often difficult in ICU – immobility of patient, equipment, dressings etc
  • May be impaired by patient habitus
  • Non-quantitative
  • Continuous monitoring impractical

Transthoracic Echo                              

  Clinical Assessment

Findings 

  • ECHO: TR, long axis cavity size, short axis septal kinetics, apex loses triangular shape, 
  • RV size compared to LV size, 
  • loss of inspiratory collapse of IVC, dilation of PA
  • RVSP > 25 for acute 
  • TAPSE <16mm

Advantages

  • Non -invasive
  • Qualitative and quantitative
  • Can give other information relevant to clinical state
  • Record and retrieve results

Disadvantages

  • Expertise required
  • Expensive equipment
  • Inter operator variability
  • Unable to perform continuous monitoring
  • Often difficult in ICU – immobility of patient, equipment, dressings etc
  • May be impaired by patient habitus

Pulmonary Artery Catheter                             

 Findings

  • Right heart failure: high CVP, low CI, high PVR
  • Elevated pulmonary artery pressures (PAPm >25mmHg)

 Advantages

  • Continuous monitoring 
  • Gold standard for pulmonary hypertension measurement
  • Quantitative measurement
  • No inter operator variability
  • Can give other information relevant to clinical state
  • Therapeutic uses – iv access, pacing
  • Record and retrieve results

 Disadvantages

  • Invasive
  • Risk of serious complications – infection, bleeding, pneumothorax, vessel rupture 
  • Drift of measurements
  • Complex, now unfamiliar in many units
  • Time limited – should not be left in for > 72 hours

Discussion

Like virtually every other question which asks people to discuss and compare the advantages and disadvantages of something, this one would benefit from a tabulated answer in point-form, as this is much easier for the examiner to mark. The worst possible thing one could do is try to answer this in a block of flowing prose. 

Thus:

Diagnostic Strategies in Right Heart Failure
Modality and findings Advantages Disadvantages

Clinical examination:

  • Raised JVP
  • Pulsatile liver. 
  • Loud P2
  • RV heave
  • TR murmur
  • Oedema 

(for more detail, see above)

  • Quick
  • Simple
  • Cheap
  • Non-invasive
  • Good specificity
  • Poor sensitivity
  • Poor reproducibility
  • Non-quantitative
  • Made complex by ICU environment
  • Difficult in cardiac surgery/open chest

Transthoracic echo

  • TR
  • Chamber size
  • Septal kinetics
  • Apex shape 
  • IVC dynamic collapse
  • Dilation of PA
  • RVSP > 25 for acute 
  • TAPSE <16mm
  • Non -invasive
  • Qualitative and quantitative
  • Can give other information relevant to clinical state
  • Record and retrieve results
  • Serial examinations possible
  • "Operator-dependent" accuracy
  • Requires an ultrasound machine
  • Unable to perform continuous monitoring
  • Impaired by ICU environment: position, drains, dressings

PA catheter

  • High CVP
  • Low cardac output
  • High PA pressure
  • High PVR
  • Gold standard for right heart assessment
  • Quantitative measurement
  • No inter-operator variability
  • Can give other information relevant to clinical state
  • Therapeutic uses – IV access, pacing
  • Record and retrieve results
  • Invasive
  • Risk of serious complications 
  • Measurement subject to assumptions and errors (particularly with TR)
  • Drift of measurements
  • Complex, now unfamiliar in many units
  • Time limited – should not be left in for > 72 hours

References

Question 23.1 - 2018, Paper 2

A 37-year-old male has presented to the Emergency Department with a 12-hour history of central crushing chest pain. He was taken to Catheter Lab by the cardiologists who have referred him to ICU 12 hours later due to hypotension, and confusion. His ECG (ECG 23.1) is shown on page 9, and laboratory results are presented below.   

Parameter

Patient Value

Adult Normal Range

FiO2

6L Hudson Mask

pH

7.36

7.35 – 7.45

pO2 

162 mmHg (21.6 kPa)

pCO2

36.7 mmHg (4.89 kPa)

35.0 – 45.0 (4.60 – 6.00)

SpO2

99%

Bicarbonate 

20.1 mmol/L*

22.0 – 26.0 

Base Excess 

-4.4 mmol/L*

-2.0 – +2.0 

Lactate 

5.1 mmol/L*

0.5 – 1.6

Sodium 

148 mmol/L*

135 – 145 

Potassium 

4.8 mmol/L

3.5 – 5.0

Chloride 

115 mmol/L*

95 – 105

Glucose 

28.0 mmol/L*

3.5 – 6.0

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

3252 U/L*

< 35

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

6378 U/L*

< 35

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

58 U/L

30 – 110

-Glutamyl transferase (GGT)

32 U/L

< 40

Prothrombin time (PT)

29.8 seconds*

12.0 – 15.0

International normalized ratio (INR)

2.9*

0.8 – 1.1

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

> 170.0 seconds*

25.0 – 37.0

Creatinine 

140 U/L*

45 – 90

(actual ECG image removed by examiners)

Dr Smith's ECG Blog

  1. Describe the ECG (ECG 23.1 on page 9) changes.                                     (20% marks) 
  1. Give a rationale for the biochemical abnormalities.                                     (20% marks)
  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?                                                             (10% mark)

College answer

a) Describe the ECG changes Bradycardia 
ST elevation in Leads II, III and aVF (inferior MI acute) also in lateral leads. ST elevation also in anterior leads, I aVL (Lateral) have ST depression. 
Compete Heart Block 
 
b) Give a rationale for the biochemical abnormalities 
Metabolic acidosis with elevated Lactate, either cardiogenic shock or related to bradycardia. Lactate is relatively high considering normal pH and only minor reduction in bicarb – potentially catecholamine infusion or hepatic injury 
Elevated liver enzymes AST and ALT probably associated with hepatic congestion Elevated INR and APTT associated with hepatic congestion, or therapeutic interventions

Corrected Na is elevated, hyperglycaemia may be underlying diabetes or stress response.

Mildly elevated Creatinine 140 secondary to hypotension, and/or contrast post angiography.

May also be pre-existing. 
 
c) What is the most likely diagnosis? 
Cardiogenic shock due to Acute right ventricular Infarction with hepatic congestion, or shock related to bradycardia 
 

Discussion

Though the ECG image was removed by the examiners, and souvenir exam papers becoming forbidden to trainees (as of this paper), it is impossible to determine which Google search the examiners used to get their images. Fortunately, within fifteen seconds one is able to conjure an ECG with the described abnormalities, from Dr Smith's ECG blog. Stephen W. Smith describes it thus:

"Rhythm: There is a regular, narrow complex bradycardia, with ventricular rate of ~43 bpm. There appear to be P-waves at irregular intervals, but without relationship to the QRS.  Thus, there is third degree (complete) AV block.  The escape is narrow, thus junctional or from the bundle of HIS.  

QRST: The QRS is narrow, so any ST-T abnormalities are primary: there is significant ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF, with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and AVL, all suggestive of an inferior STEMI. Note that the ST elevation in lead III is greater than that in lead II, but that this is not specific for culprit artery (RCA vs. Left Circumflex).  However, there is ST elevation in lead V1, the furthest right pre-cordial lead, which lies directly over the RV free wall and highly suggests a Right Ventricular MI"

This context serves to demystify the rest of the interpretation. Rationale for the rest of the abnormalities is as follows:

  • There is virtually no A-a gradient, probably because this sort of MI does not tend to produce florid pulmonary oedema (A-a = (0.30 × 713)-(36.7 / 0.8) - 162 = 6 mmHg).
  • There is no acidaemia or alkalaemia
  • There is a metabolic acidosis, which is mild (SBE -4.4)
  • The respiratory compensation is appropriate (expected CO2 is 36.3 mmHg if you use the Copenhagen method, or (1.5 × 20.1)+8 = 38.1 mmHg by Winter's formula).
  • The anion gap is raised if you calculate it with potassium (17.7) or normal without it (12.9). The delta ratio is therefore either 0.23 or 1.46 (because the bicarbonate change was so small). Because lactate is raised (5.1), one would be probably more inclined to trust the potassium-inclusive result, as it fits better into the "liver, lactate, HAGMA" narrative. 
  • Speaking of the LFTs, they are profoundly deranged, with a predominantly hepatotoxic patter, colloquially referred to as a "transaminitis". The large AST elevation can be in part attributed to the myocardial myocyte death.
  • Synthetic liver function is deranged, with elevated PT/INR and APTT.
  • The creatinine is raised (140) which the college have attributed to contrast post angiography ("He was taken to Catheter Lab").
  • There is otherwise unexplained hyperglycaemia, which given the state of cardiogenic shock could be due to anything, including the stress response and catecholamine release.

In summary, the most likely explanation which covers the ECG and biochemistry is cardiogenic shock due to right ventricular infarction, with hepatic congestion. 

References

Question 27 - 2018, Paper 2

Outline the therapeutic options with rationale for the treatment of right ventricular dysfunction in an ICU patient. 

College answer

Optimise preload:  
By titrating fluid if hypovolaemic or diurese or dialyse off volume if required.  
Most conditions that lead to RV dysfunction in the ICU are due to increased afterload & an enlarging RV may worsen coronary perfusion as well as impede LV filling through ventricular interdependence. Hence reducing RV excessive preload can both reduce RV stretch and function as well as improving the performance of the LV. 
In those specific circumstances where RV output is impaired due to contractile dysfunction e.g. in the setting of a normal afterload, a higher preload is needed to maintain forward flow. e.g. RV infarction 
 
Improving contractility  
 
General measures to improve contractility: 
Avoid over stretch of the RV free wall with optimisation of preload and afterload.  
Maintenance of Sinus rhythm – correct electrolytes, acidaemia, use of anti-dysrhythmics, and if needed AV sequential pacing. 
 
Pharmacological approaches: 
1.    Noradrenaline improves coronary perfusion in the RV but will increase pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR); however, the overall impact is that noradrenaline has been shown be helpful in RV dysfunction 
2.    Adrenaline improves RV contractility without increasing (PVR) 
3.    Milrinone (50mcg/kg bolus -> 0.2-0.8mcg/kg/min) a PD3 inhibitor improves inotropy and promotes vasodilatation (systemic and pulmonary). Can be associated with hypotension so paired with noradrenalin.  
4.    Dobutamine -can be paired with noradrenaline but can cause tachyarrhythmias 
5.    Levosimendin is a calcium sensitiser and can improve RV function in left heart disease. 
 
Mechanical devices to support the RV: whist we treat the underlying cause. These include: ECMO; RV assist devices/Impella.  
 
Afterload reduction  
Excessive afterload plays some role in nearly all cases of acute RV failure. 
Reduction best achieved by a range of general measures and specific pharmaco-therapies including pulmonary vasodilators. 
 
General measures to improve hypoxia hypercarbia and acidosis 
1.    Oxygen therapy  
2.    Lung protective mechanical ventilation using the lowest effective plateau pressure tidal volume and PEEP whilst avoiding hypoxia and hypercarbia.  
e.g. Vt 4-6ml/kg Ideal BW; minimise PEEP; P plat < 30 mmHg; treat hypercarbia, acidosis. (PVR lowest at FRC) 
3.    Avoidance of hypothermia  
4.    Treatment of thromboembolic disease if acute cor pulmonale from PE. 
 
Pulmonary Vasodilators   
Several classes of drug in this setting and all have the potential to cause systemic hypotension and blunt hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction and can worsen VQ mismatch. 
 
a)    Inhaled nitric oxide 20-40ppm; rapid onset short offset short half-life is the inhaled vasodilator of choice in the critically ill. Has been shown to improve RV ejection fraction and end-diastolic volume in these patients, improve pulmonary hemodynamics and mixed venous oxygen saturation in patients with acute RV failure. 
 
b)    Inhaled prostacyclin analogues have been shown to be   effective in post cardiac surgery patients with pulmonary hypertension, refractory hypoxaemia or right heart dysfunction. 
  
Examiners’ Comments: 
 
The level of detail in template was not required. Discussion of preload optimisation, contractility and pulmonary vasodilation was required for a pass. 

 

Discussion

This is the second question on right heart failure in the same paper, the other being  Question 5  (focusing on the investigations for right heart failure). Management of RV dysfunction is discussed in (much) greater detail elsewhere, and so the nitty-gritty of it are omitted from this discussion section because under the stress of years of (many) RV failure questions that section has hypertrophied to a completely unmanageable thickness, to the point where it no longer functions as a revision resource for the time-poor candidate.

In summary:

  • Preload management:
    • Acute failure: increase preload to CVP 8-12 mmHg
    • Chronic failure: decrease preload to CVP 8-12 mmHg 
    • Titrate using PA catheter (CO measurements)
  • Afterload management:
    • Prevent pulmonary vasoconstriction:
      • Keep PEEP 6-10 cm H2O
      • Keep SpO2 >92%
      • Keep PaCO2 35-45 mmHg
      • Keep pH 7.35-7.45
      • Avoid high dose noradrenaline
        • But: keep systemic BP at least above pulmonary BP
    • Increase pulmonary vasodilation:
      • Nitric oxide
      • IV or inhaled prostacycline
      • Bosentan, ambrisentan
      • Sildenafil, tadalafil
      • Riociguat
  • Contractility:
    • Dobutamine, for where PA pressure is normal
    • Milrinone, for where PA pressure is raised
    • Levosimendan, for where you really need a cardiac output boost
  • Rate
    • ​​​​​​​60-100 appears to be a safe range (no specific diastolic benefit with low rates, no specific diastolic disadvantage with high rates)
  • Rhythm
    • ​​​​​​​​​​​​​​Sinus rhythm might be favoured in RV failure due to acute RV infarction (where there is no preexisting pulmonary hypertension).

References

Haddad, François, et al. "Right ventricular function in cardiovascular disease, part II: pathophysiology, clinical importance, and management of right ventricular failure." Circulation 117.13 (2008): 1717-1731.

Brida, Margarita, Gerhard-Paul Diller, and Michael A. Gatzoulis. "Systemic right ventricle in adults with congenital heart disease: anatomic and phenotypic spectrum and current approach to management." Circulation 137.5 (2018): 508-518.

Kucher, Nils, et al. "Double-chambered right ventricle." Circulation 103.21 (2001): e105-e106.

Tonelli, Adriano R., et al. "Peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis as a cause of pulmonary hypertension in adults." Pulmonary circulation 5.1 (2015): 204-210.

Blake, Hu A., Robert J. Hall, and William C. Manion. "Anomalous pulmonary venous return." Circulation 32.3 (1965): 406-414.

Takach, Thomas J., et al. "Sinus of Valsalva aneurysm or fistula: management and outcome." The Annals of thoracic surgery 68.5 (1999): 1573-1577.

Vavuranakis, Manolis, Charles A. Bush, and Harisios Boudoulas. "Coronary artery fistulas in adults: incidence, angiographic characteristics, natural history." Catheterization and cardiovascular diagnosis 35.2 (1995): 116-120.

Kulasegaram, Kulamakan, et al. "The alignment imperative in curriculum renewal." Medical teacher (2018): 1-6.

Marcus, Frank I., et al. "Diagnosis of arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia: proposed modification of the task force criteria." Circulation 121.13 (2010): 1533-1541.

Gorter, Thomas M., et al. "Right ventricular dysfunction in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction: a systematic review and meta‐analysis." European journal of heart failure18.12 (2016): 1472-1487.

Gorter, Thomas M., et al. "Right heart dysfunction and failure in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction: mechanisms and management. Position statement on behalf of the Heart Failure Association of the European Society of Cardiology." European journal of heart failure 20.1 (2018): 16-37.

Zamora, Rolando, James H. Moller, and Jesse E. Edwards. "Double-outlet right ventricle: anatomic types and associated anomalies." Chest 68.5 (1975): 672-677.

Mant, Jonathan, et al. "Systematic review and individual patient data meta-analysis of diagnosis of heart failure, with modelling of implications of different diagnostic strategies in primary care." (2009).

Voelkel, Norbert F., et al. "Right ventricular function and failure: report of a National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute working group on cellular and molecular mechanisms of right heart failure." Circulation 114.17 (2006): 1883-1891.

Ventetuolo, Corey E., and James R. Klinger. "Management of acute right ventricular failure in the intensive care unit." Annals of the American Thoracic Society 11.5 (2014): 811-822.

Vlahakes, Gus J., Kevin Turley, and J. I. E. Hoffman. "The pathophysiology of failure in acute right ventricular hypertension: hemodynamic and biochemical correlations." Circulation 63.1 (1981): 87-95.

Dell'Italia, L. J., et al. "Comparative effects of volume loading, dobutamine, and nitroprusside in patients with predominant right ventricular infarction." Circulation 72.6 (1985): 1327-1335.

Bart, Bradley A., et al. "Cardiorenal rescue study in acute decompensated heart failure: rationale and design of CARRESS-HF, for the Heart Failure Clinical Research Network." Journal of cardiac failure 18.3 (2012): 176-182.

Patil, Nitin Tanajirao. "Strategies in patients with right ventricular failure on mechanical ventilation." Indian Journal of Respiratory Care 7.1 (2018): 22.

Schmitt, Jean-Marie, et al. "Positive end-expiratory pressure titration in acute respiratory distress syndrome patients: impact on right ventricular outflow impedance evaluated by pulmonary artery Doppler flow velocity measurements." Critical care medicine 29.6 (2001): 1154-1158.

Lahm, Tim, et al. "Medical and surgical treatment of acute right ventricular failure." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 56.18 (2010): 1435-1446.

Kiely, David G., Robert I. Cargill, and Brian J. Lipworth. "Effects of hypercapnia on hemodynamic, inotropic, lusitropic, and electrophysiologic indices in humans." Chest 109.5 (1996): 1215-1221.

Sylvester, J. T., et al. "Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction." Physiological reviews 92.1 (2012): 367-520.

Zamanian, Roham T., et al. "Management strategies for patients with pulmonary hypertension in the intensive care unit." Critical care medicine 35.9 (2007): 2037-2050.

Carvalho, Carlos Roberto Ribeiro, et al. "Temporal hemodynamic effects of permissive hypercapnia associated with ideal PEEP in ARDS." American journal of respiratory and critical care medicine 156.5 (1997): 1458-1466.

Rudolph, A. M., and Stanley Yuan. "Response of the pulmonary vasculature to hypoxia and H+ ion concentration changes." The Journal of clinical investigation 45.3 (1966): 399-411.

Bousvaros, George A. "Effects of norepinephrine on human pulmonary circulation." British heart journal 24.6 (1962): 738.

Bhorade, Sangeeta, et al. "Response to inhaled nitric oxide in patients with acute right heart syndrome." American journal of respiratory and critical care medicine 159.2 (1999): 571-579.

Charl, J., et al. "Inhaled prostacyclin is safe, effective, and affordable in patients with pulmonary hypertension, right heart dysfunction, and refractory hypoxemia after cardiothoracic surgery." The Journal of thoracic and cardiovascular surgery127.4 (2004): 1058-1067.

Ferrario, Maurizio, et al. "Hemodynamics of volume loading compared with dobutamine in severe right ventricular infarction." American Journal of Cardiology 74.4 (1994): 329-333.

Kerbaul, François, et al. "Effects of norepinephrine and dobutamine on pressure load-induced right ventricular failure." Critical care medicine 32.4 (2004): 1035-1040.

Eichhorn, Eric J., et al. "Differential effects of milrinone and dobutamine on right ventricular preload, afterload and systolic performance in congestive heart failure secondary to ischemic or idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy." American Journal of Cardiology 60.16 (1987): 1329-1333

Hansen, Mona Sahlholdt, Asger Andersen, and Jens Erik Nielsen-Kudsk. "Levosimendan in pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure." Pulmonary circulation 8.3 (2018): 2045894018790905.

Kleber, Franz X., et al. "Repetitive dosing of intravenous levosimendan improves pulmonary hemodynamics in patients with pulmonary hypertension: results of a pilot study." The Journal of Clinical Pharmacology 49.1 (2009): 109-115.

Qiu, Jiayong, et al. "Efficacy and safety of levosimendan in patients with acute right heart failure: a meta-analysis." Life sciences 184 (2017): 30-36.

Dubin, Anne M., et al. "Electrical resynchronization: a novel therapy for the failing right ventricle." Circulation 107.18 (2003): 2287-2289.

Skhiri, Mehdi, et al. "Evidence-based management of right heart failure: a systematic review of an empiric field." Revista Española de Cardiología (English Edition) 63.4 (2010): 451-471.

Question 30.3 - 2018, Paper 2

List four clinical signs of severity in chronic aortic regurgitation.          (40% marks) 

College answer

•    Collapsing pulse/wide pulse pressure  
•    Length of decrescendo diastolic murmur  
•    LV third heart sound  
•    Soft A2  
•    Austin Flint (mid-diastolic) murmur  
•    Left ventricular failure  
•    Displaced apex beat  
 

Discussion

This question closely resembles the first part of Question 16 from the first paper of 2016, which expected the candidates to "list five clinical signs of severity in chronic aortic regurgitation. (25% marks)". The college answer here is a direct cut-and-paste. The author, emboldened by this, has reproduced the discussion section for Question 16 below, with neither useful modification nor any sense of shame. 

One might expect that features suggestive of severity in chronic AR would be mainly features related to the effect of AR on cardiac function, not just generic features of AR

  • LV dilatation (displaced apex, diffuse hyperdynamic impulse)
  • Congestive cardiac failure (low blood pressure, peripheral oedema)
  • Poor exercise tolerance
  • Signs of widened pulse pressure (see below)
  • An S3, suggestive of poor LV function

Generic features of AR are as follows:

  • Signs of widened pulse pressure:
    These were mentioned in Question 14.2 from the first paper of 2013
    • Corrigans sign: a "jerky" carotid pulse: full expansion, followed by complete collapse. You're palpating the pressure of the left ventricle, essentially. It's named after a 19th century Irishman. It indicates a severe aortic incompetence.
    • de Musset's sign which the college answer has spelled incorrectly is  a visible nodding of the head in time with arterial pulsation in patients with severe aortic insufficiency. It is named after an aortically insufficient French poet.
    • Quincke's sign, otherwise known as Quincke's pulse, is a nail sign: it is seen when the nailbed is blanched. The pale nail bed flashed red and white as capillary refill is restored. It can also be seen in the absence of any aortic problems, in patients who have sclerodactily.
    • Duroziez's sign is elicited by listening over the femoral artery with the bell of the stethoscope. It is supposed to be a double murmur. According to some recent evidence, it has almost 100% specificity. There is supposed to be both a systolic and a diastolic bruit, as blood rushes into - and then rapidly out of - the femoral artery.
  • These are mentioned in UpToDate:
    • Traube's sign – A pistol shot pulse (systolic and diastolic sounds) heard over the femoral arteries.
    • Mueller's sign – Systolic pulsations of the uvula.
    • Becker's sign – Visible pulsations of the retinal arteries and pupils.
    • Hill's sign – Popliteal cuff systolic pressure exceeding brachial pressure by more than 20 mmHg with patient in the recumbent position.
    • Mayne's sign – More than a 15 mmHg decrease in diastolic blood pressure with arm elevation from the value obtained with the arm in the standard position.
    • Rosenbach's sign – Systolic pulsations of the liver.
    • Gerhard's sign – Systolic pulsations of the spleen. 
  • Chacteristic auscultatory findings:
    • Soft S1
    • Soft A2
    • An S3 if LV function is severely depressed
    • A systolic ejection sound due to abrupt aortic distension

References

Nicholas Joseph Talley, Simon O'Connor; Clinical Examination: A Systematic Guide to Physical Diagnosis (7th ed)

SEGAL, JACK P., W. PROCTOR HARVEY, and MICHAEL A. CORRADO. "The Austin Flint murmur: its differentiation from the murmur of rheumatic mitral stenosis." Circulation 18.5 (1958): 1025-1033.

Leatham, Aubrey. "Splitting of the first and second heart sounds." The Lancet 264.6839 (1954): 607-614.

Sabbah, HANI N., and PAUL D. Stein. "Investigation of the theory and mechanism of the origin of the second heart sound." Circulation research 39.6 (1976): 874-882.

Saberi, Asif, and Saeed A. Syed. "Corrigan’s sign." Hospital Physician (1999): 29.

DAVIES, M., and A. Hollman. "de Musset sign." Heart 82.3 (1999): 262.

Norton, S. A. "Keratoderma with pseudo-Quincke's pulse." Cutis 62.3 (1998): 135-136.

Sapira, J. D. "Quincke, de Musset, Duroziez, and Hill: some aortic regurgitations." Southern medical journal 74.4 (1981): 459-467.

Luisada, Aldo A. "On the pathogenesis of the signs of Traube and Duroziez in aortic insufficiency. A graphic study." American Heart Journal 26.6 (1943): 721-736.

BLUMGART, HERRMAN L., and A. CARLTON ERNSTENE. "Two mechanisms in the production of Duroziez's sign: their diagnostic significance and a clinical test for differentiating between them." Journal of the American Medical Association 100.3 (1933): 173-177.

Nishimura, Rick A., et al. "2014 AHA/ACC guideline for the management of patients with valvular heart disease: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 63.22 (2014): e57-e185.

Question 1 - 2019, Paper 1

You are attending a rapid response call (RRC) for a 60-year-old male who is hypotensive following coronary angiography and angioplasty.

a)    What is your differential diagnosis for the hypotension?    (20% marks)

b)    List the findings from the history, examination and investigations that would help determine the cause of the hypotension.    (30% marks)

c)    Outline your management priorities.    (50% marks)
 

College answer

Diagnoses

Pericardial collection with tamponade

Stent occlusion

Coronary dissection or rupture

Evolving MI

Anaphylaxis

Effects of sedation and respiratory depression

Blood loss from cannulation site or retroperitoneal haematoma (femoral access)

Pulmonary oedema

Arrhythmias including heart block

History

-known allergies

-indication for procedure

-procedure performed, anatomical site of access, ease of procedure, coronary anatomy and disease, stents deployed

-medications given (anticoagulants, antiplatelets, vasodilators, inotropes or vasoconstrictors, sedatives, hypnotics etc)

-current symptoms (chest or abdo pain, SOB, dizziness etc)

Examination

-signs of cardiogenic shock (cold, clammy, diaphoretic, altering mentation, pulmonary oedema etc)

-signs of tamponade (soft HS / Elevated JVP and distended neck veins / pulsus paradoxus)

-Assess access sites especially groin and look for signs of local or retroperitoneal bleeding

-signs of anaphylaxis e.g. wheeze, flushing etc.

Blood pressure, heart rate and rhythm, respiratory rate, signs of respiratory distress, heart sounds

Investigations

ECG and echo mandatory

-ECG: new or ongoing ST elevation may indicate thrombus, stent occlusion or coronary dissection. Inferior MI may lead to 2/3rd degree heart block, and ongoing ischaemia may result in ventricular arrhythmias.

-Echocardiography looking or pericardial effusion/tamponade, which may be the result of coronary artery perforation, or cardiac perforation. Also looking for regional wall motion abnormalities or new VSD, cardiac function etc.

-Bloods including blood gas and troponin; drop in Hb, elevated lactate, significant hypoventilation etc Chest x-ray if signs of respiratory distress

Management priorities

Should focus on stabilisation of ABC and correction of reversible causes.

Haemorrhage should be excluded as quickly as possible, as should a contrast or other drug reaction. Judicious fluid challenge and use of inotropic agents/vasopressors to achieve a safe blood pressure. The need for urgent return to the Cath Lab or proceeding to the operating theatre should be decided on as soon as possible. In the absence of local haemorrhage or another clear precipitant, and after the deployment of stents, return to the Cath Lab is almost mandated to exclude stent occlusion/dissection

The need for intubation should be very carefully assessed, as the procedure carries

significant risk in the setting of severe hypovolemia or cardiac tamponade. Oxygen should be given, and judicious use of CPAP may help with pulmonary oedema although this may worsen RV dysfunction/tamponade physiology etc

Temporary pacing (transvenous or percutaneous) as indicated. Anti-arrhythmics such as amiodarone should be given as required.

Examiners Comments:

Often unstructured general resuscitation answers without reference to the specific clinical scenario. The crucial possibilities of reinfarction and cardiac tamponade were missed by many candidates as were the potential need for specific therapies. Unfortunately, some candidates spent a lot of time writing on very general aspects.

Discussion

Though the college list pulmonary oedema in their list of differentials, it is unclear how this is supposed to produce hypotension. Rather, it is an expected epiphenomenon seen in association with cardiogenic shock.

The list of differentials can be divided into categories:

  • Complications of the anaesthetic
    • Anaphylaxis (eg. to the contrast)
    • Cardiodepressant effect of general anaesthetics
    • Local anaesthetic toxicity
  • Complications of the procedure
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Coronary artery dissection or perforation
    • Aortic injury
    • Stent thrombosis
    • Retroperitoneal haematoma
    • Intestinal ischaemia due to cholesterol emboli
  • Complications of the underlying disease
    • Cardiogenic shock due to ischaemia
    • Brady or tachyarrhythmia
  • Unrelated catastrophic event
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Sepsis

"List the findings from the history, examination and investigations that would help determine the cause of the hypotension" they asked. This is a potentially massive time-wasting exercise for 30% of the marks. Because minimal history is given (60 years old, male, post angio), the possible answer may be quite broad. The college examiners have done quite a good job of listing the most informative examination findings in this model answer. In short, the following broad categories of question need to be asked to help determine the cause of the hypotension":

Presenting history

  • R​​​​​eason for angiography
  • Anaesthetic and procedure history (eg. which drugs did they give?)
  • Pre-procedure course (i.e. were they already in shock?)

Past history

  • Allergies
  • Medications (eg. anticoagulated?)

Examination findings and symptoms

  • Features of anaphylaxis (urticarial rash, wheeze, etc)
  • Features of cardiogenic shock (chest pain, cool extremities, shortness of breath, creps in the chest, etc)
  • Features of cardiac tamponade (pulsus paradoxus, raised JVP, etc)
  • Features of aortic dissection (back pain, differential limb pulses, abdominal pain)
  • Features of retroperitoneal haematoma (abdominal pain, distension, obvious haematoma)

Investigations:

  • ECG (STEMI, arrhythmias)
  • TTE 
  • CXR (tamponade)
  • ABG (haemoglobin, lactate)
  • Coags

Management priorities, one would have to say, depend entirely on what one finds during the process of investigating the cause of the hypotension. One would have rather different priorities in dealing with cardiac tamponade as compared to anaphylaxis. Because of this, it would have been difficult for the trainees to offer anything but "unstructured general resuscitation answers".  Moreover, though the college complained about generic responses lacking in elements specific tot he scenario, they also recommended the trainees to focus on "stabilisation of ABC and correction of reversible causes", which is as generic as it gets. With these conflicting directives, the following answer attempts to walk a fine line between specifics and generalities.

A - Assess the need for immediate airway control (eg. in context of contrast anaphylaxis)

B - Establish adequate oxygenation 

C - Correct hypotension:

   - Confirm that vascular access is secure

   - Administer short-acting vasopressor, eg. metaraminol

   - Assess the need for fluid resuscitation (eg. is the patient already in pulmonary oedema?)

   - Assess the need for immediate return to the cath lab or operating theatre (ECG looking for MI)

D - Address the patients' pain and distress

E - Correct any urgently lifethreatening electrolyte derangements (eg. give magnesium if the patient is having polymorphic VT)

H - Assess the need for blood products and coordinate urgent surgical referral if a retroperitoneal haematoma is discovered

References

Tavakol, Morteza, Salman Ashraf, and Sorin J. Brener. "Risks and complications of coronary angiography: a comprehensive review." Global journal of health science 4.1 (2012): 65.

Question 8 - 2019, Paper 1

a)    List four predisposing conditions and four precipitating factors which may lead to the occurrence of dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in critically ill patients.
(40% marks)

b)    What specific cardiovascular clinical signs on physical examination may be present in a patient with left ventricular dynamic outflow obstruction?    (20%marks)

c)    What are the principles of medical treatment in a patient with shock secondary to dynamic outflow obstruction?    (40% marks)
 

College answer

a)    Predisposing conditions
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Left ventricular hypertrophy (e.g. Hx of hypertension or aortic stenosis)
Post AVR or TAVI for aortic stenosis
Post MVR

Precipitating factors
Hypovolaemia
Vasodilatation e.g. anaesthesia, sepsis, nitrates, liver failure
Tachycardia/arrhythmias
Inotropic agents
 
b)    Ejection systolic murmur lower left sternal edge which may vary in intensity over time as the gradient changes
An associated MR murmur is common
Signs of low CO syndrome i.e. hypotension, oliguria, lactic acidosis, end organ hypoperfusion
LVF signs

c)    Fluid loading
–increase preload
Vasocontrictors (preferably without b effect i.e. phenylephrine / vasopressin) increase afterload without increasing heart rate
Negative inotrope / chronotrope e.g. b blockade
–control heart rate
–manage arrhythmias
Treat underlying conditions

Examiners Comments:

This was generally answered well. Candidates who did poorly didn't know how to manage patients with outflow tract obstruction and recommended dangerous therapies including inotropic therapy and vasodilator agents.

Discussion

Given that this was "generally answered well",  one might assume that a detailed breakdown of the subject is probably superfluous and that only cosmetic changes could be made to enhance the already excellent college answer. That is reasonably accurate. Unfortunately, the same cannot be said for the question. Specifically, the distinction between "predisposing conditions" and "precipitating factors"  is difficult to parse. Is a mitral valve replacement a "condition" or a "factor"?  If it's a predisposing condition, then why isn't liver failure a predisposing condition? Confusion prevails. In order to make sense of this, "predisposing conditions" here are interpreted as "structural factors" and precipitating factors are interpreted as "functional factors".

Predisposing conditions

  • HOCM
  • Concentric LV hypertrophy
  • Eccentric septal hypertrophy
  • Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve (SAM)
  • Structural causes of anterior mitral valve leaflet or apparatus position
    • Redundant anterior leaflet
    • Redundant posterior leaflet
    • Papillary muscle displacement 
    • Prosthetic valve placement
  • Infiltrative cardiac disease
    • Cardiac amyloid
    • Fabry disease
    • Danon disease
    • Friedrich ataxia
    • Cardiac oxalosis
    • Mucopolysaccharidoses
    • Sarcoidosis

Precipitating factors

  • Insufficient diastolic filling pressure
    • Hypovolemia
    • Atrial fibrillation
  • Insufficient diastolic filling time
    • Tachycardia
    • SVT or VT
  • Insufficient afterload
    • Vasodilation due to sepsis
    • Vasodilator drugs, eg. nitrates or general anaesthetics
  • Excessive contractility
    • Inotrope drugs
    • Stress
    • Pain
    • Anxiety
    • Exercise

Clinical features include:

  • Haemodynamic instability associated with stress
  • Ejection systolic murmur, louder with Valsalva (whereas AS becomes softer)
  • MR murmur
  • Brockenbrough–Braunwald-Morrow phenomenon: "a paradoxical decrease in the arterial pulse pressure and an associated increase in the LV systolic pressure in the beat following a PVC" (Trevino & Buergler, 2014). 
  • Brisk arterial pulse with rapid systolic rise and rapid drop-off
  • Characteristic "spike and dome" appearance of the aortic pressure trace

Management consists of targeting the following parameters:

  • Preload: keep it high-normal. 
  • Rate: keep it slow. 
  • Rhythm: keep it sinus. 
  • Contractility: bring it down. Negative inotropes are often called for, eg. beta-blockers
  • Afterload: keep it high. Use vasopressors with minimal beta effect (eg. vasopressin or phenylephrine)

References

Walmsley, Robert. "Anatomy of left ventricular outflow tract." British heart journal 41.3 (1979): 263.

Vilcant, Viliane, and Ofek Hai. "Left Ventricular Outflow Tract Obstruction." StatPearls [Internet]. StatPearls Publishing, 2018.

Halpern, Ethan J., et al. "Characterization and normal measurements of the left ventricular outflow tract by ECG-gated cardiac CT: implications for disorders of the outflow tract and aortic valve." Academic radiology 19.10 (2012): 1252-1259.

Ibrahim, Michael, et al. "Modern management of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve." European Journal of Cardio-Thoracic Surgery 41.6 (2012): 1260-1270.

Kobayashi, Sayuki, et al. "Causes of an increased pressure gradient through the left ventricular outflow tract: a West Coast experience." Journal of echocardiography 16.1 (2018): 34-41.

Pennacchini, Ermelinda, et al. "Distinguishing hypertension from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as a cause of left ventricular hypertrophy." The Journal of Clinical Hypertension17.3 (2015): 239-241.

A Kelshiker, Mihir, et al. "Basal septal hypertrophy." Current cardiology reviews 9.4 (2013): 325-330.

Seward, James B., and Grace Casaclang-Verzosa. "Infiltrative cardiovascular diseases: cardiomyopathies that look alike." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 55.17 (2010): 1769-1779.

Yang, Ji Hyun, et al. "Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction without basal septal hypertrophy, caused by catecholamine therapy and volume depletion." The Korean journal of internal medicine 23.2 (2008): 106.

Sanderson, J. E., et al. "Left ventricular filling in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. An angiographic study." Heart 39.6 (1977): 661-670.

Hong, Joon Hwa, Hartzell V. Schaff, and Rick A. Nishimura. "Fixed versus dynamic subaortic stenosis: Hemodynamics and resulting differences in Doppler echocardiography and aortic pressure contour.The Journal of thoracic and cardiovascular surgery 151.3 (2016): 883.

Sen-Chowdhry, Srijita, et al. "Update on hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and a guide to the guidelines." Nature Reviews Cardiology 13.11 (2016): 651.

Chan, Wan L., et al. "Effect of preload change on resting and exercise cardiac performance in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." The American journal of cardiology 66.7 (1990): 746-751.

Gilligan, David M., et al. "Cardiac responses assessed by echocardiography to changes in preload in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.American Journal of Cardiology 73.4 (1994): 312-315.

Shah, P. M., R. Amarasingham, and C. M. Oakley. "Haemodynamic effects of changes in blood volume in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy." British heart journal27.1 (1965): 83.

Cross, Cecil E., and Peter F. Salisbury. "Functional subaortic stenosis produced in animals." The American journal of cardiology 12.3 (1963): 394-398.

Hadjimiltiades, Stavros, et al. "Dynamic changes in left ventricular outflow tract flow velocities after amyl nitrite inhalation in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." American heart journal 121.4 (1991): 1143-1148.

Sherrid, Mark V., Gretchen Pearle, and David Z. Gunsburg. "Mechanism of benefit of negative inotropes in obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." Circulation 97.1 (1998): 41-47.

Poliac, Liviu C., Michael E. Barron, and Barry J. Maron. "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." Anesthesiology: The Journal of the American Society of Anesthesiologists 104.1 (2006): 183-192.

Panduranga, Prashanth, et al. "Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction complicating aortic valve replacement: A hidden malefactor revisited." Saudi journal of anaesthesia 4.2 (2010): 99.

Tsuruta, Hikaru, et al. "Incidence, predictors, and midterm clinical outcomes of left ventricular obstruction after transcatheter aortic valve implantation." Catheterization and Cardiovascular Interventions 92.4 (2018): E288-E298.

Guler, Niyazi, Cenap Ozkara, and Aytac Akyol. "Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction after bioprosthetic mitral valve replacement with posterior mitral leaflet preservation." Texas Heart Institute Journal 33.3 (2006): 399.

Dahhan, Ali, et al. "Hypotension due to dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction after percutaneous coronary intervention.Texas Heart Institute Journal 38.6 (2011): 723.

Trevino, Alejandro R., and John Buergler. "the BroCkenBrouGh–BraunWald–MorroW siGn." Methodist DeBakey cardiovascular journal 10.1 (2014): 34.

Pagani, Francis. "A lesson in the power of observation." The Journal of thoracic and cardiovascular surgery 156.4 (2018).

BROCKENBROUGH, EDWIN C., EUGENE BRAUNWALD, and ANDREW G. MORROW. "A hemodynamic technic for the detection of hypertrophic subaortic stenosis." Circulation 23.2 (1961): 189-194.

Goodwin, J. F., et al. "Obstructive cardiomyopathy simulating aortic stenosis." British heart journal 22.3 (1960): 403.

Slama, Michel, Christophe Tribouilloy, and Julien Maizel. "Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in ICU patients." Current opinion in critical care 22.3 (2016): 260-266.

Question 24.1 - 2019, Paper 1

List five causes of cardiogenic shock following myocardial infarction.    (25% marks)

College answer

  • Left or Right ventricular failure
  • Severe mitral regurgitation
  • Septal rupture
  • Cardiac tamponade/ventricular free wall rupture
  • Arrhythmia (brady or tachy)
  • Drug induced

Discussion

This is an exercise in generating differentials for causes of shock which are applicable to the post-MI period. Thus:

Differential Diagnosis of Shock following MI

Artifactual or spurious

  • Inaccurately measured blood pressure
  • Noradrenaline line is not connected

Mechanical support failure

  • IABP augmentation failure
  • VA ECMO malfunction

Hypovolaemic

  • Loss of blood
    • Retroperitoneal (post angio)
    • Pulmonary / intrathoracic (ventricla damage post angio)

Cardiogenic

  • Ischaemic LV dysfunction
  • Sudden "valve failure", eg. papillary muscle rupture
  • Septal or ventricular rupture
  • Cardiac contusion (contusio cordis) following CPR
  • Drug overdose (of negative inotropes)
  • Rate problem: too fast or too slow
  • AF (loss of atrial kick)
  • Severe acidosis (myocardial depression)

Distributive

  • Anaphylaxis to angio contrast
  • Drug overdose (of vasodilators)
  • Reperfusion "post arrest" syndrome

Obstructive

  • Valve obstruction (thrombosis, myxoma)
  • LVOT or RVOT obstruction
  • Cardiac tamponade due to perforation or rupture

References

Question 24.2 - 2019, Paper 1

What clinical signs on physical examination would you expect in a non-ventilated patient with a right ventricular infarct?    (25% marks)

College answer

  • Clinical signs would include the triad of hypotension, elevated JVP and clear lung fields
  • Pulsus paradox
  • Kussmaul’s sign (elevation of JVP on inspiration)
  • Right sided gallop S3/4.

Examiner's comments:

Part b was answered poorly - candidates listed the signs of right ventricular failure, not of a right ventricular infarct.

Discussion

The signs of right heart failure, which we were not supposed to specifically mention, would surely develop with a right sided infarct, and therefore reveal it to be right sided. 

"The clinical triad of hypotension, clear lung fields, and elevated jugular venous pressure in a patient with an inferior infarction is virtually pathognomonic for right ventricular infarction." However, the triad has a sensitivity of 25% (Kinch et al; 1994). Other signs may include:

  • Kussmaul's sign
  • Distended neck veins
  • Tricuspid regurgitation
  • Gallop rhythm
  • AV dissociation (i.e. conduction abnormalities)

Anyway: features of right heart failure will not have time to develop with acute infarction, but here they are anyway:

  • Features attributable to pulmonary hypertension
    • Loud P2(may be palpable)
    • Narrowly split S2
    • Tricuspid murmur
    • Diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation
  • Features attributable to RV hypertrophy
    • Prominent a  wave in the JVP
    • Right-sided fourth heart sound (augmented by inspiration)
    • Left parasternal heave
    • Downward subxiphoid thrust.
  • Features attributable to RV dilatation and decompensated failure
    • Prominent wave in the significantly raised JVP
    • Right-sided third  heart sound (augmented by inspiration)
    • Peripheral oedema
    • Ascites
    • Hepatomegaly (which may be pulsatile)
    • Signs of LV failure, eg. pulmonary oedema (due to out-bowing of the intraventricular septum, and LV diastolic failure resulting from this)

References

Lorell, Beverly, et al. "Right ventricular infarction: clinical diagnosis and differentiation from cardiac tamponade and pericardial constriction.The American journal of cardiology43.3 (1979): 465-471.

Kinch, Jack W., and Thomas J. Ryan. "Right ventricular infarction." New England Journal of Medicine 330.17 (1994): 1211-1217.

Question 30.1 - 2019, Paper 1

A 60-year-old female who has presented to the Emergency Department with breathlessness is referred to you. Her ECG is shown on page 11 (ECG 30.1).

a)    Describe the important features of this ECG.    (40% marks)

b)    List the likely differential diagnoses in this patient.    (20% marks)
 

ECG 30.1

cor pulmonale and RVH.jpg

College answer

a)    Describe the important features of this ECG (40% marks)
Sinus tachycardia
Right axis deviation
Peaked P waves
Upright R in avR
R wave in V1,
poor R wave progression (RVH)
 
b)    List the likely differential diagnoses in this patient. (20% marks)

Massive Pulmonary Embolus

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (various aetiologies, including underlying connective tissue disorders, porto-pulmonary hypertension, primary pulmonary hypertension)

Conditions causing cor pulmonale (including COPD, Interstitial lung disease, OSA/obesity hypoventilation syndrome)

Discussion

Judging by the differentials, this was an ECG demonstrating some sort of acute or chronic right heart strain. The image comes from Chapter 7 of Clinical Electrocardiography: A Simplified Approach by Goldberger et al (2017). The interpretation for this figure is:

"A tall R wave (as part of an Rs complex) with an inverted T wave caused by right ventricular overload is seen in leads V1 to V5 (also in II, III, and aVF) from a patient with right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) that was multifactorial. Marked right axis deviation is also present because the R wave in lead III is much taller than the R wave in lead II. In fact, the RVH is so severe that the R wave progression pattern is actually reversed (rS in V6). The negative but prominent P wave in V1 is probably due to right atrial overload, with slightly peaked P waves in leads II, III, and aVF."

The differentials for RV hypertrophy are broad:

  • Due to pulmonary hypertension
    • Acute PE
    • Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
    • Chronic hypoxic lung disease, eg. pulmonary fibrosis or connective tissue disease
    • Pulmonectomy
    • Connective tissue disease
    • Secondary pulmonary hypertension, eg. due to mitral valve disease or diastolic heart failure
  • Due to structural cardiac disease
    • Atrial septal defect
    • Ventricular septal defect
    • Eisenmenger syndrome
    • Stenosis of the pulmonic valve or pulmonary artery
    • Anomalous pulmonary venous return
    • RV hypertrophy due to hyperthyroidism

References

Goldberger, Ary L., Zachary D. Goldberger, and Alexei Shvilkin. "Chapter 7 - Atrial and Ventricular Enlargement"; in:  Clinical Electrocardiography: A Simplified Approach E-Book: A Simplified Approach. Elsevier Health Sciences, 2017.

Question 30.2 - 2019, Paper 1

A 36-year-old female with history of alcohol abuse presents with nausea, vomiting and palpitations. Her ECG is shown on page 12 (ECG 30.2).

a)    What is the major abnormality in this ECG?    (20% marks)

b)    List three differential diagnoses for the ECG abnormality.    (20% marks)
 

ECG 30.2

long qt

College answer

a)    What is the major abnormality in this ECG (20% marks)
Prolonged QT

b)    List 3 differential diagnoses for the ECG abnormality (20% marks – 5% marks each)
-    Electrolyte abnormality
o    Hypokalaemia
o    Hypocalcaemia
o    Hypomagnesaemia
-    Drugs (many)
o    E.g. Amitriptyline, amiodarone, erythromycin, droperidol, haloperidol, risperidone,
-    Thyroid – hypo/hyper
-    Myocardial – heart failure, ischaemia, myocarditis
-    Congenital
 

Discussion

This ECG is on loan from the Jill Squires collection, with many thanks to her.  The QTc of this patient was 585 msec according to the automated QT-correcting algorithm. 

Differentials, according to Harrigan & Chan (2009), include:

Non-drug-related causes

  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypothermia
  • Thiamine deficiency
  • Cardiac ischaemia

Drugs (also see www.qtdrugs.org)

  • Cardiac agents
    • Anti-arrhythmics (Type Ia, Ic, and III)
    • Calcium channel-blockers (some) (e.g. bepridil, isradipine, nicardipine)
  • Anti-psychotic agents
    • Phenothiazines (some) (e.g. thioridazine, mesoridazine)
    • Butyrophenones (e.g. haloperidol, droperidol)
  • Anti-depressants (some) (e.g. tricyclics, fluoxetine, sertraline, venlaflaxine)
  • Anti-infective agents
  • Fluoroquinolones (some) (e.g. sparfloxacin, gatifloxacin, moxifloxicin)
  • Macrolides (some) (e.g. erythromycin, clarithromycin)
  • Miscellaneous (pentamidine, amantadine, tetracyclines, foscarnet, quinine, chloroquine)
  • Neurologic agents
    • Carbamazepine, fosphenytoin, sumatriptan, zolmitriptan, naratriptan
  • Organophosphates
  • Gastrointestinal agents (e.g. cisapride, ipecac, octreotide, dolasetron)
  • Other (e.g. cocaine, diphenhydramine, methadone, tacrolimus, tamoxifen, probucol, tizanidine, salmeterol)

References

Harrigan, Richard A., and Theodore C. Chan. "| What is the ECG differential diagnosis of a prolonged QT interval?." Critical Decisions in Emergency and Acute Care Electrocardiography. Oxford, UK: Wiley‐Blackwell, 2009. 479-482.

Question 7 - 2019, Paper 2

a)    List the clinical signs associated with severe (< 28ºC) hypothermia.    (30% marks)

b)    Outline the considerations in providing advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) in a severely hypothermic patient.    (70% marks)
 

College answer

Neuro: Loss of cerebrovascular regulation, coma, loss of ocular reflexes
CVS: Decline in BP and cardiac output, VF (<28°C) bradycardia and asystole (<20°C)
Respiratory: Pulmonary oedema, apnoea
Renal: Oliguria
Musculoskeletal: Pseudo-rigor mortis (may appear dead)
Metabolic: Decreased metabolic rate, hyper or hypoglycaemia

Considerations in providing ACLS
Decision to start

May commence cardiac life support in an apparently “dead” hypothermic patient. Beware that very slow, irregular small volume pulse may be present and an unrecordable blood pressure. The brain can tolerate cardiac arrest for long periods at 18°C.

Rewarming

Patients need to be actively rewarmed while resuscitation is being continued.
Extra-corporeal support, not mandated, but can be mentioned
More emphasis on the continuing re-warming, an issue of priority, should state early
Temperature should be measured centrally
 
Physical difficulties

Hypothermia can cause stiffness of chest wall making ventilation and chest compression difficult – early use of mechanical devices as resuscitation attempts are likely to be prolonged.
Be aware that interventions (e.g. CPR, central line placement, endotracheal intubation) may precipitate arrhythmias

Medications

Consider withholding drugs (e.g. Adrenaline) until core temp > 30°C and then double the interval between giving the drugs (i.e. give adrenaline every 4th cycle compared with every 2nd cycle) until temperature 35°C
The hypothermic heart may be unresponsive to cardioactive drugs, electrical pacing and defibrillation. Arrhythmias
Arrhythmias other than VF tend to revert spontaneously as temperature rises. Bradycardia does not usually need treatment as it is physiological in severe hypothermia
VF therapy: unclear at which temp shocking should be first attempted. After 3 shocks if no response, consider delaying further attempts at defibrillation until temperature > 28-30°C

Examiners Comments:

In part a), candidates listed things that were not clinical signs e.g. ECG changes and ETCO2, and there was also a focus on the CVS aspect which showed a limited breadth of clinical signs, and hence limited marks. In part b), many candidates did not show a breadth of considerations, and focussed mainly on the rewarming in great depth, hence did not score well on this section. Also, candidates often listed their management rather than outline their considerations, so the aspects they discussed also often lacked depth.
 

Discussion

The cranky CICM examiners complained that, when asked for clinical signs, many of the candidates "listed things that were not clinical signs e.g. ECG changes and ETCO2" And then they themselves had listed "loss of cerebrovascular regulation", "decline in ... cardiac output" and "decreased metabolic rate" in their model answer. Looking at their list, one might come to the conclusion that the question asked for the physiological consequences of hypothermia.

Anyway, the clinical signs are:

  • Observation
    • Mottled appearance
    • Cyanosis
    • Pallor
    • No shivering
    • Cold oedematous skin
  • Respiratory findings
    • Apnoea, hypoventilation or Cheyne-Stokes respiration
    • Creps on auscultation, suggestive of pulmonary oedema
  • Cardiovascular findings
    • Sinus bradycardia, AF or asystole
    • Hypotension
    • Weak thready pulse, or altogther impalpable peripheral pulses
    • Poor capillary refill
  • Neurological findings
    • Coma (unresponsiveness below 32°C)
    • Increased muscle tone
    • Sluggish deep tendon reflexes
    • Extensor plantar responses
    • Loss of cranial nerve reflexes (with fixed mid-dilated pupils)
  • Gastrointestinal findings
    • Absent bowel sounds
    • Abdominal tenderness (hypothermia-induced pancreatitis)
  • Renal findings
    • Decreased urine output

All of this comes from excellent reviews by Rosin et al (1964) and Aslam et al (2006)

Now, as for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermia. "Outline the considerations", judging by the wording of the model answer, appears to mean "discuss all the ways hypothermic arrest is different". Though the college question asks specifically about ACLS, the college answer also discusses some BLS material. The ideal reference for this would probably have to be the AHA "Special Circumstances" section from the 2015 cardiac arrest guidelines. Following the AHA's own structure:

  • Prognostic implications of cardiac arrest with severe hypothermia:
    • Prognosis may be better than expected given the usually prolonged duration of CPR
    • A large percentage of survivors (~ 40%) have a good neurological outcome
  • Changes to basic life support:
    • It may take longer than normal to detect signs of life (up to 1 minute)
    • CPR should ideally be performed mechanically (prolonged CPR is to be expected)
    • Intermittent CPR (stopping for 5 minutes every 5 minutes) is reasonable for prehospital and retrieval staff, particularly when interruption facilitates retrieval
    • Manual or mechanical ventilation may encounter poor lung compliance
  • Changes to advanced life support
    • Do not defibrillate until core temperature is over 30°C.
    • If you decide to defibrillate and after three shocks the rhythm remains VF, withhold further attempts until core temperature is over 30°C.
    • Do not give adrenaline until core temperature is over 30°C.
    • After 30°C is achieved, double the interval between adrenaline doses until 35°C
    • Use a low-reading thermometer to record core body temperature
  • Rewarming techniques
    • Rewarming is central to the success of resuscitation
    • Extracorporeal circuit rewarming is the ideal
    • Warmed fluids and peritoneal lavage is the next best option
    • External warming is least effective
    • Remember that intubation will produce a increase in the rate of cooling by interruption of shivering though paralysis and anaesthesia.
  • Supportive post-arrest management
    • The temperature of approximately 32° to 34°C can be maintained after rewarming, according to standard post-cardiac arrest guidelines.
    • The AHA recommend that we "do not delay urgent interventions such as airway management and insertion of vascular catheters regardless of evidence of cardiac irritability"

References

Lexow, Kristian. "Severe accidental hypothermia: survival after 6 hours 30 minutes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation." Arctic medical research 50 (1991): 112-114.

Meyer, Marie, et al. "Sequela-free long-term survival of a 65-year-old woman after 8 hours and 40 minutes of cardiac arrest from deep accidental hypothermia." The Journal of thoracic and cardiovascular surgery 147.1 (2014): e1-e2.

Saczkowski, Richard S., et al. "Prediction and risk stratification of survival in accidental hypothermia requiring extracorporeal life support: An individual patient data meta-analysis." Resuscitation 127 (2018): 51-57.

Danzl, Daniel F., et al. "Multicenter hypothermia survey." Annals of emergency medicine 16.9 (1987): 1042-1055.

Fell, R. H., et al. "Severe hypothermia as a result of barbiturate overdose complicated by cardiac arrest." The Lancet 291.7539 (1968): 392-394.

Lee, H. A., and A. C. Ames. "Haemodialysis in severe barbiturate poisoning." British medical journal 1.5444 (1965): 1217.

Paal, Peter, et al. "Accidental hypothermia–an update." Scandinavian journal of trauma, resuscitation and emergency medicine 24.1 (2016): 111.

Gordon, Les, et al. "Delayed and intermittent CPR for severe accidental hypothermia." Resuscitation 90 (2015): 46-49.

Oberhammer, Rosmarie, et al. "Full recovery of an avalanche victim with profound hypothermia and prolonged cardiac arrest treated by extracorporeal re-warming." Resuscitation 76.3 (2008): 474-480.

Lee, Christopher H., et al. "Advanced cardiac life support and defibrillation in severe hypothermic cardiac arrest." Prehospital Emergency Care 13.1 (2009): 85-89.

Mortensen, Elin, et al. "Changes in ventricular fibrillation threshold during acute hypothermia. A model for future studies." Journal of basic and clinical physiology and pharmacology 4.4 (1993): 313-320.

Kornberger, Elisabeth, et al. "Effects of epinephrine in a pig model of hypothermic cardiac arrest and closed-chest cardiopulmonary resuscitation combined with active rewarming." Resuscitation 50.3 (2001): 301-308.

Ujhelyi, Michael R., et al. "Defibrillation energy requirements and electrical heterogeneity during total body hypothermia." Critical care medicine 29.5 (2001): 1006-1011.

Stoner, Jason, et al. "Amiodarone and bretylium in the treatment of hypothermic ventricular fibrillation in a canine model." Academic emergency medicine 10.3 (2003): 187-191.

Question 12 - 2019, Paper 2

A 64-year-old female patient has been ventilated in your ICU for 36 hours with septic shock and is receiving significant doses of noradrenaline and vasopressin. On the morning review you note her troponin level is elevated to over 10 times the normal range for your institution.

a)    How do you interpret the raised troponin level in this setting?    (40% marks)

b)    Outline your assessment and management plan specific to the raised troponin level.
(60% marks)
 

College answer

Interpretation of raised troponin- should not be used in isolation in this patient. The measured value of troponin is high and should not be ignored or dismissed. If unexpected, repeat the test. Symptoms of chest pain are not easy to elicit in the ventilated patient. Troponin leak in this setting may be due to myocarditis associated with sepsis, acute cardiomyopathy, Takotsubo disease given high dose vasopressor or a STEMI or NSTEMI or right ventricular disease. Elevated troponin in renal failure should also be considered if relevant. Elevated troponins are associated with poor outcomes in septic patients.

Management plan- Comprehensive clinical assessment especially cardiovascular and haemodynamic assessment. Look for recent, rapid increase in vasopressor requirement, signs of cardiogenic shock. Review ECG for any evidence of STEMI or other new changes, Review CXR for new pulmonary oedema/heart failure. Echo- transthoracic or if available TOE is mandatory to look for any regional wall motion abnormalities that may be new. Evidence of global changes on echocardiography may indicate acute cardiomyopathy e.g. Myocarditis. Look for classic changes of Takatsubo’s.

Further management will be determined by ECG and echo findings. Cardiology review, anticoagulation, careful consideration of thrombolysis or angioplasty if STEMI or regional changes on echo with consideration given to haemodynamic instability and challenges of transfer and management in cardiac catheter lab. Role of IABP in global hypokinesis related to acute cardiomyopathies.

Troponin increases in septic patients is thought to be associated with poor prognosis

Discussion

This question is identical to Question 6 from the first paper of 2017, and so is this answer:

What could this raised troponin mean?

  • It may be totally meaningless:
    • Cardiac troponins are elevated in 85% of patients with sepsis in the absence of acute coronary syndrome.
    • Overinterpretation can increase the cost and duration of hospital stay (Suarez et al, 2016)
  • It may represent an acute coronary syndrome:
    • Sepsis is a high-output cardiac failure state, and may unmask some sort of (previously subclinical) coronary artery disease.
    • Any proinflammatory state can give rise to an increased risk of MI (Donzé et al, 2014)
  • It may identify patients with septic cardiomyopathy:
    • Significant myocardial depression is observed in up to 60% of septic patients (Vieillard-Baron et al , 2008)
    • This may be associated with a raised troponin
    • A raised troponin does not identify patients who need inotropes
  • It may be a predictor of increased mortality:
    • Raised troponin predicts increased mortality,  with a risk ratio of around 1.9. (Sheyin et al, 2015)

Assessment and management plan:

  • History
    • Detailed interrogation of the bedside records to determine whether any critical events had taken place recently, eg. sudden increase in vasopressor doses or episodes of unexplained tachycardia
    • Exploration of the past medical history, specifically looking for previous history of ischaemic heart disease
  • Examination, to look for...
    • New murmurs
    • Features more consistent with cardiac failure than with distributive shock, eg. oedema, pulsatile liver, displaced apex beat, elevated JVP, cool extremities.
  • ECG, to look for...
    • Changes associated with ischaemia, eg. ST segments and T waves
    • New bundle branch block
    • Arrhythmia, eg. new onset AF
  • Biochemistry
    • ABG, to assess for metabolic acidosis (as this can cause myocardial depression)
    • Electrolyte values, to exclude embarrassingly correctable causes of low cardiac output eg. severe ionised hypocalcemia or hypophosphataemia
    • A repeat troponin value, and serial measurements to follow
  • TTE, to assess
    • Global systolic function
    • Regional wall motion
    • Valve function
    • Diastolic function
  • Management:
    • This would depend on the findings of the abovelisted investigations.
    • If the TTE is essentially normal, it may be that no further management is required beyond regular aspirin.
    • If there is global systolic dysfunction, inotropes may be called for. At this stage, one may decide to use some sort of advanced haemodynamic monitor (eg. PA catheter, PiCCO etc) so that one may be better able to titrate their vasoactive drugs.
    • If there are ECG changes and/or regional wall motion abnormalities, one may be able to make a diagnosis of acute MI. This poses several treatment options:
      • Conservative management with antiplatelet drugs and heparin infusion (which may be impossible in the context of severe sepsis, where DIC has already made the patient thrombocytopenic and coagulopathic)
      • Angiography and revascularisation (risky in the context of severe sepsis, particularly insofar as stent deployment is concerned)
      • Coronary artery bypass grafting (essentially out of the question given the severe shock state)

References

Ahmed, Amna N., et al. "Prognostic significance of elevated troponin in non-cardiac hospitalized patients: A systematic review and meta-analysis." Annals of medicine 46.8 (2014): 653-663.

Ammann, P., et al. "Elevation of troponin I in sepsis and septic shock." Intensive care medicine 27.6 (2001): 965-969.

Landesberg, Giora, et al. "Troponin elevation in severe sepsis and septic shock: the role of left ventricular diastolic dysfunction and right ventricular dilatation." Critical care medicine 42.4 (2014): 790-800.

Smith, Andria, et al. "Elevated cardiac troponins in sepsis: what do they signify?." West Virginia Medical Journal 105.4 (2009): 29-33.

Tiruvoipati, Ravindranath, Nasreen Sultana, and David Lewis. "Cardiac troponin I does not independently predict mortality in critically ill patients with severe sepsis." Emergency Medicine Australasia 24.2 (2012): 151-158.

Suarez, Keith, et al. "TROPONIN TESTING IN PATIENTS HOSPITALIZED FOR SEPSIS IS ASSOCIATED WITH INCREASED CARDIOVASCULAR TESTING AND LENGTH OF STAY." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 67.13 (2016): 451.

Sheyin, Olusegun, et al. "The prognostic significance of troponin elevation in patients with sepsis: a meta-analysis." Heart & Lung: The Journal of Acute and Critical Care 44.1 (2015): 75-81.

Hunter, J. D., and M. Doddi. "Sepsis and the heart." British journal of anaesthesia 104.1 (2009): 3-11.

Vieillard-Baron, Antoine, et al. "Actual incidence of global left ventricular hypokinesia in adult septic shock." Critical care medicine 36.6 (2008): 1701-1706.

Donzé, Jacques D., et al. "Impact of sepsis on risk of postoperative arterial and venous thromboses: large prospective cohort study." BMJ 349 (2014): g5334.

Question 15.1 - 2019, Paper 2

A 60-year-old male is complaining of breathlessness of sudden onset two months previously.

There is no associated chest pain.

What are the abnormalities on the ECG and what is the likely diagnosis?    (25 % marks)
 

ECG-Ventricular-Aneurysm.jpg

College answer

Q waves in leads V1-V4 (Previous MI?)
Elevated ST segments and inverted T waves in V2-V5
 
Inverted T waves in aVL
Likely diagnosis is left ventricular aneurysm

Examiners Comments:

Many candidates appear to have examined the ECG, drawn a conclusion and then retrofitted findings to support that. Confabulation in answers was common. Acceptance in marking was made of relatively amorphous answers (e.g. "anterior" as opposed to specific leads) but even with this, lack of specificity was common. Many candidates ignored the highly pertinent history that was given, showing a lack of clinical context/Bayesian thinking.

Discussion

This image was shamelessly stolen from LITFL, where - one can be reasonably sure - the examiners also turn when they Google for ECG images. This one comes from the specific entry on LV aneurysm

For the record, the ECG features listed by LITFL are as follows:

  • ST elevation seen > 2 weeks following an acute myocardial infarction.
  • Most commonly seen in the precordial leads.
  • May exhibit concave or convex morphology.
  • Usually associated with well-formed Q- or QS waves.
  • T-waves have a relatively small amplitude in comparison to the QRS complex (unlike the hyperacute T-waves of acute STEMI).

References

Question 15.2 - 2019, Paper 2

You have been asked to review a 50-year-old female who has collapsed at work.

a)    What are the abnormalities on the ECG?    (25 % marks)

b)    What is the rhythm?    (25 % marks)
 

ECG-Atrial-flutter-1-1-block-1024x553.jpg

College answer

Narrow complex tachycardia, rate around 300bpm

Absent p waves
ST segment depression V4-V6

Atrial flutter with 1:1 conduction.

Examiners Comments:

Many candidates appear to have examined the ECG, drawn a conclusion and then retrofitted findings to support that. Confabulation in answers was common. Acceptance in marking was made of relatively amorphous answers (e.g. "anterior" as opposed to specific leads) but even with this, lack of specificity was common. Many candidates ignored the highly pertinent history that was given, showing a lack of clinical context/Bayesian thinking.
 

Discussion

This image was shamelessly stolen from LITFL. It is a rapid (rate of 300) sinus tachycardia with some ST segment depression which likely represents some degree of demand ischaemia. The only other thing this could be is a super-rapid AVNRT with orthodromic conduction.

References

Question 15.3 - 2019, Paper 2

You are reviewing an 80-year-old female admitted to the Emergency Department after a fall and head injury. Her ECG is shown on page 15

RBBB%20%2B%20LPFB_0.jpg

What are the abnormalities? (25 % marks)

College answer

Right axis deviation

Right bundle branch block

Bifasicular block.

Examiners Comments:

Many candidates appear to have examined the ECG, drawn a conclusion and then retrofitted findings to support that. Confabulation in answers was common. Acceptance in marking was made of relatively amorphous answers (e.g. "anterior" as opposed to specific leads) but even with this, lack of specificity was common. Many candidates ignored the highly pertinent history that was given, showing a lack of clinical context/Bayesian thinking.
 

Discussion

This image was shamelessly stolen from the website which is clearly identified on the watermark. The authors described it thus:

"Sinus tachycardia with a rate of 113. The QRS is wide at 158 ms. There is a monophasic R-wave in lead V1. There is a right axis deviation with qR complexes in the inferior leads and rS complexes in the high lateral leads"

LIFT lists ECG features of RBBB:

  • Broad QRS > 120 ms
  • RSR’ pattern in V1-3 (‘M-shaped’ QRS complex)
  • Wide, slurred S wave in the lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6)

LIFT also lists features of LPFB:

  • Right axis deviation (RAD) (> +90 degrees)
  • rS complexes in leads I and aVL
  • qR complexes in leads II, III and aVF
  • Prolonged R wave peak time in aVF

References

Question 18 - 2019, Paper 2

An 82-year-old male has been cleared for discharge to the ward after spending three weeks in your ICU for a large subdural haemorrhage. A junior nurse gave him a trial of oral feeding and then removed his right subclavian vein catheter. Subsequently, he became cyanosed and suffered a bradycardic/asystolic cardiac arrest.

Following successful resuscitation and orotracheal intubation, his observations are as follows: Heart rate: 135 beats/min (sinus)
 
Blood pressure: 120/72 mmHg on noradrenaline 20 mcg/min Oxygen saturation of 90% on FiO2 0.8

a)    List two likely differential diagnoses that best explain the events.    (20% marks)

b)    Outline your diagnostic approach to distinguish between them.    (40% marks)

c)    Briefly outline the specific management for each of your diagnoses.    (40% marks)
 

College answer

  1. One mark each for the following diagnoses (only count first 2 listed by candidate)
    1. Air embolism
    2. Aspiration pneumonitis/pneumonia
    3. Pulmonary embolus
  2. For each diagnosis 2 marks for clear and concise diagnostic strategy:
  • 1 mark for appropriate history and examination features
  • 1 mark for specific investigations

e.g.

Air Embolism:

History of unclamped line especially in upright position, sudden onset typically. Exam may reveal ‘Mill Wheel’ murmur

Investigation: Echocardiography to reveal air in cardiac chambers

Aspiration:

History: May be witnessed, hypoxia after eating/drinking

Exam: Signs of consolidation/collapse (crackles, bronchial breathing etc.) Investigations: CXR usually sufficient, OK to mention US

PE:

History: risk factors, sudden onset, chest pain, SOB

Exam: usually nil specific, absence of alternative diagnostic signs e.g. normal auscultation Investigations: CTPA confirmatory if stable enough for transport, Echo highly suggestive in correct clinical setting and occasional visualise thrombus.

  1. Clear specific, safe, sensible management strategy = 2 marks for each condition. 1 = partial detail or lacking clinical perspective

e.g.

Air embolism:

Occlude CVC site

Head down / Trendelenberg position Catheter aspiration

O2/supportive care

Consider hyperbaric when haemodynamically stable especially if neurological symptoms and signs

Aspiration:

Intubation/airway protection

Bronchoscopy if large volume or bronchial obstruction

Antibiotics for secondary infection

PE:

Consider embolectomy or catheter directed clot retrieval if available.

Thrombolysis may be considered even in cases of massive PE even with recent surgery if death otherwise imminent, balance risk of bleeding vs. death by PE on case-by-case basis.

Anticoagulation with Heparin/Clexane depending on perceived risk of bleeding

Discussion

This is one of those things that might work better as a table:

Possibility Diagnosis Management
Air embolism

Clinical:

  • characteristic "mill-wheel" murmur 
  • Gas bubbles in the retina
  • Hypoxia with shunt
  • Tachypnoea and dyspnoea

Monitoring:

Investigations

  • Bubbles on TTE/TOE
  • Increased PA pressure
  • Bubbles on CTPA
  • Put the patient in a supine position (a head-down position is sometimes recommended)
  • Increase the FiO2 to 100%
  • Aspirate the gas using a PA catheter
  • Hyperbaric oxygen
  • Anticonvulsants
  • A heparin infusion is occasionally recommended
Massive PE

Clinical:

  • Tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypoxia
  • Normal chest auscultation
  • Massive dead space ventilation 

Monitoring:

  • ECG changes (S1 Q3 T3, right heart strain pattern)
  • Low end-todal CO2

Investigations

  • Normal CXR
  • Distended RV on TTE
  • Obviously CTPA
  • Thrombolysis
  • Heparin infusion
  • Clot retrieval or catheter-directed thrombolysis
  • Inotropes with pulmonary vasodilator properties (eg. milrinone or levosimendan
Massive aspiration

Clinical:

  • Tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypoxia
  • Creps on chest auscultation
  • Massive shunt

Monitoring:

  • Poor lung compliance (via ventilator)

Investigations

  • Abnormal CXR
  • Bronchoscopy for lavage
  • Prone position ventilation
  • Lung-protective ventilator settings
  • Inhaled pulmonary vasodilators

References

Muth, Claus M., and Erik S. Shank. "Gas embolism." New England Journal of Medicine 342.7 (2000): 476-482.

Palmon, Sally C., et al. "Venous air embolism: a review." Journal of clinical anesthesia 9.3 (1997): 251-257.

Oh's Intensive Care manual: Chapter 34   (pp. 392) Pulmonary  embolism by Andrew  R  Davies  and  David  V  Pilcher

Anderson, Frederick A., and Frederick A. Spencer. "Risk factors for venous thromboembolism." Circulation 107.23 suppl 1 (2003): I-9.

Konstantinides, Stavros V., et al. "2014 ESC Guidelines on the diagnosis and management of acute pulmonary embolism." European Heart Journal (2014): ehu283.

Question 20 - 2019, Paper 2

A 60-year-old male is Day 3 after uneventful coronary artery bypass grafting in your ICU. The ICU registrar calls you at 2:00 am to say that the patient had a sudden cardiac arrest, requiring two minutes of CPR and a single shock before ROSC.

Now the patient is awake, on no supports and in sinus rhythm with heart rate 35beats/min and blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg. The ICU registrar has commenced an amiodarone infusion after speaking to the cardiac surgical team.

You receive an image of the rhythm strip on your phone (ECG 20.1 shown on page 6), which was recorded at the time of the cardiac arrest.

ECG-strip-Torsades-de-pointes-TDP-768x193.jpg

State what the rhythm strip shows and outline your management plan for this patient.
 

College answer

The rhythm strip shows polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, and it looks like torsades de pointes. TdP is caused by QT prolongation and is often precipitated by bradycardia.

Management Plan
ECG to establish QT interval. Stop amiodarone
IV Magnesium infusion (to keep Mg around 1.5-2 mmol/L)
Avoid/stop any other medications that prolong the QTc e.g. haloperidol / erythromycin / quinolones / methadone etc.
Exclude hypokalaemia / hypocalcaemia and treat as appropriate
Consider using lignocaine if recurrent episodes.

Institute temporary pacing (or could use epicardial wires if in place) or may use positive chronotrope, e.g. judicious isoprenaline infusion.
Overdrive pacing may be useful in recurrent episodes.
Exclude ischaemia as a precipitant (most likely if normal QT): ECG / Troponin / ECHO / angiography of grafts. If ischemia is the cause and the QTc is normal, amiodarone and beta blockade are useful.

Urgent echocardiography is reasonable to help exclude ischemia and also in the setting of CPR post sternotomy/cardiac surgery to exclude structural problems/pericardial effusion etc.
Further follow up :Cardiology opinion (electrophysiology) regarding need for further EP studies, PPM/AICD and ongoing maintenance medication choices.
Recurrent episodes may require short term mechanical circulatory support.

Discussion

State what the rhythm strip shows

Yup, that's polymorphic VT, straight from the polymorphic VT page in LITFL. It could also be torsades des pointes but for that diagnosis one would need a 12-lead ECG which demonstrates a long QT interval. 

outline your management plan for this patient

  • Immediately lifesaving steps
    • Stop the amiodarone (that will only prolong the QT even further)
    • IV magnesium sulfate, aiming ffor a higher than normal serum level
    • Isoprenaline (to increase heart rate to 100-110)
    • Pacing (day 3 post CABG, they may still have wires in)
    • Lignocaine infusion
  • Investigations
    • ECG to confirm long QT interval
      • if QT is normal, amiodarone may be recommenced, provide the heart rate permits
    • Bloods to look for electrolyte derangement
    • Troponin to exclude graft failure/occlusion
    • TTE to look for regional wall motion abnormalities
    • Graft angiography
  • Preventative strategies
    • Stop the other QT-prolonging drugs
    • Keep the serum K+ around 4.7 - 5.2 mmol/L
  • Experimental treatments and last resort measures
    • Clonidine
    • Ranolazine
  • Specific definitive management
    • EPS and catheter ablation

References

Roberts-Thomson, Kurt C., Dennis H. Lau, and Prashanthan Sanders. "The diagnosis and management of ventricular arrhythmias.Nature Reviews Cardiology 8.6 (2011): 311.

ARC Guideline 11.2: Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support

Aronow, Wilbert S. "Treatment of Ventricular Arrhythmias." (2014).

John, Roy M., et al. "Ventricular arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death." The Lancet 380.9852 (2012): 1520-1529.

Question 22 - 2019, Paper 2

With respect to the management of cardiac arrest in the pregnant patient:

a)    Discuss the considerations around the decision to perform peri-mortem Caesarian section (PMCD).    (70% marks)

b)    List the other modifications to the standard advanced life support (ALS) protocol that need consideration in this situation.    (30% marks)
 

College answer

a)
Guidelines recommend PMCD for pregnant women in cardiac arrest > 24/40 weeks (with fundus height at or above the umbilicus) when ROSC has not been achieved with usual resuscitation measures with manual lateral uterine displacement (LUD). In extreme circumstances may be considered in 20 – 24/40-week pregnancy but evidence for benefit is limited.

Decisions on the optimal timing of a PMCD for both the infant and mother are complex and require consideration of factors such as the cause of the arrest, maternal pathology and cardiac function, foetal gestational age, and resources. Shorter arrest-to-delivery time is associated with better outcome.

PMCD should be strongly considered for every mother in whom ROSC has not been achieved after
≈4 minutes of resuscitative efforts.

If maternal viability is not possible (through either fatal injury or prolonged pulselessness), the procedure should be started immediately; the team does not have to wait to begin PMCD.

There is no requirement for transfer to an operating theatre, obstetric/surgical expertise, equipment beyond a scalpel or lengthy antiseptic procedures

b)
Manual lateral uterine displacement +/- left lateral tilt to avoid aorto-caval compression. Early intubation to decrease risk of aspiration – likely to be more difficult in pregnant patient Hand placement for chest compressions may need to be slightly higher.
Standard pad placement may be difficult because of breast size so consider bilateral (bi-axillary) placement.
Early call for obstetric and paediatric help.

Discussion

This question is very similar to Question 9 from the first paper of 2016, except that time the examiners wanted the candidates to "Outline the factors that govern the decision" instead of "Discuss the considerations around the decision". One can only wonder about the rationale for this change of wording. Whatever it was, it clearly did not change the expectations on the trainees, or the marking rubric, because the college model answers to both questions are identical. 

the following expert suggestions act as criteria for perimortem caesarian section:

  • Less than 4-5 minutes from arrest
  • Without a prolonged period of unwitnessed collapse
  • At or after 23 weeks of gestation

If the delivery is being performed with foetal survival as the rationale, further criteria apply:

  • Without a prolonged period of maternal haemorrhage or hypoxia
  • With foetal heart beat confirmed as present

So, what are the "considerations around the decision"? Surely, those considerations would fall into the categories of pros, cons and published data. And so:

Arguments for peri-mortem Caesarian

  • Improved venous return to the heart
  • Improved efficiency of external cardiac compressions (sans pelvic tilt)
  • A chance for foetal survival if the mother is unsalvageable
  • Allows transabdominal direct cardiac massage.

Arguments against peri-mortem Caesarian

  • Strong evidence is lacking.
  • The procedure must occur within 4 minutes of arrest
  • Rarely can the procedure be performed that fast. Average time is 16 minutes (Einav et al, 2012).
  • Of the infants delivered "late", many will have severe neurological sequelae (Katz et al,  1986)

Theoretical risks of perimortem Caesarian

  • Foetal injury during the rushed procedure
  • Maternal complications consistent with survival, but resulting in disability.
  • Medicolegal risks, eg. patient/spouse/siblings will object in the future.
  • One may also be determined negligent for not performing this potentially lifesaving procedure.

Evidence regarding the efficacy and safety of  peri-mortem Caesarian

b)

Modifications to standard ALS protocols consist of the following points:

Modifications to diagnostic thinking

  • Though pregnant women may die of the same causes as non-pregnant non-women (i.e. the four Hs and four Ts), one needs to keep in mind the following alternative causes of arrest:
    • Amniotic fluid embolism
    • Hypertensive disorder of pregnancy (with ensuing cardiac failure)
    • Seizures (with ensuing hypoxia and arrest)
    • Haemorrhage from liver rupture
    • Haemorrhage from uterine rupture

Issues which complicate the pregnant arrest and peri-arrest scenario

  • Difficult intubation
  • Increased risk of aspiration (the stomach just doent't empty)
  • Venous return is impaired by the gravid uterus
  • Systemic oxygen consumption is increased
  • Cardiac output and circulating volume are greater; decompensation occurs later.

Modifications to basic life support

  • Manually displace the uterus to the left (off the aorta and vena cava)
  • Add a left lateral tilt (the ideal angle is unknown, and is thought to be between 15° and 30°).
  • Prepare for an emergency perimortem caesarian.
  • Biaxillary defibrillator pad placement

References

Einav, Sharon, Nechama Kaufman, and Hen Y. Sela. "Maternal cardiac arrest and perimortem caesarean delivery: evidence or expert-based?." Resuscitation 83.10 (2012): 1191-1200.

Morris Jr, John A., et al. "Infant survival after cesarean section for trauma." Annals of surgery 223.5 (1996): 481.

Beckett, V. A., P. Sharpe, and M. Knight. "CAPS—A UKOSS STUDY OF CARDIAC ARREST IN PREGNANCY AND THE USE OF PERI-MORTEM CAESAREAN SECTION. IMPLICATIONS FOR THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT." Emergency Medicine Journal 32.12 (2015): 995-995.

Elkady, A. A. "Peri-mortem Caesarean Section Delivery: A Literature Review and Comprehensive Overview." Enliven: Gynecol Obstet 2.3 (2015): 005.

Campbell, Tabitha A., and Tracy G. Sanson. "Cardiac arrest and pregnancy." Journal of emergencies, trauma, and shock 2.1 (2009): 34.

Katz, Vern L., Deborah J. Dotters, and William Droegemueller. "Perimortem cesarean delivery." Obstetrics & Gynecology 68.4 (1986): 571-576.

Manner, Richard L. "Court-Ordered Surgery for the Protection of a Viable Fetus:, 247 6a. 8b, 274 SE 2d 457 (1981)." (1982).

Question 15.1 - 2020, Paper 1

The ECG shown on page 13 (ECG 15.1) is from a 36-year-old male patient who presented with syncope.

ECG-Brugada-Syndrome-Type-1-2-1024x492.jpg
a)    Describe the abnormalities. (20% marks)

b)    What is the likely diagnosis? (10% marks)

c)    What is the treatment for this condition? (5% marks)
 


 

College answer

a)    Incomplete RBBB and ST elevation in anterior leads
b)    Brugada syndrome
c)    AICD
 

Discussion

This image was stolen from LITFL, where the examiners also shop for their ECGs. There is no evidence of an AICD in the image (as that was hard to find). The ECG demonstrates the classic "coved ST segment elevation" in V1-V3,  followed by a negative T wave.


 

References

Question 15.2 - 2020, Paper 1

The ECG shown on page 14 (ECG 15.2) is from a 74-year-old female admitted for monitoring after facial surgery. There is no chest pain.

Wellens-Syndrome-Type-B-Pattern.jpg

 
a)    Describe the abnormalities. (25% marks)

b)    What is the underlying diagnosis? (10% marks)
 


 

College answer

a)

  • Deep TWI anterior leads
  • Left axis deviation
  • Moderate voltage criteria for LVH
  • ST abnormalities
  • Prolonged QTc

b)

Critical LAD stenosis (Wellens syndrome) 
 

Discussion

This image was stolen from LITFL, as they all tend to be. According to Rhinehart et al (2002), via that LTFL entry (which is gloriously detailed), the criteria for Wellen's syndrome are:

  • Deeply-inverted or biphasic T waves in V2-3 (may extend to V1-6)
  • Isoelectric or minimally-elevated ST segment (< 1mm)
  • No precordial Q waves
  • Preserved precordial R wave progression
  • Recent history of angina
  • ECG pattern present in pain-free state
  • Normal or slightly elevated serum cardiac markers

References

Rhinehardt, Joseph, et al. "Electrocardiographic manifestations of Wellens' syndrome." The American journal of emergency medicine 20.7 (2002): 638-643.

Question 15.3 - 2020, Paper 1

The ECG shown on page 15 (ECG 15.3) is from a 47 year-old female with breast cancer who presented with shortness of breath.

 ECG_massive_pericardial_effusion-768x410.jpg
a)    Describe the abnormalities. (20% marks)

b)    What is the likely underlying diagnosis? (10% marks)
 


 


 

College answer

a)

  1. Low voltage QRS complexes
  2. Electrical alternans
  3. Tachycardia
b) Pericardial effusion

Discussion

This ECG was stolen from the LITFL page on ECG changes in massive pericardial effusion. The alternans is most clearly visible in the rhythm strip, which is V1. 

References

Usher, Bruce W., and Richard L. Popp. "Electrical alternans: mechanism in pericardial effusion." American heart journal 83.4 (1972): 459-463.

Question 8 - 2020, Paper 2

“All patients with return of spontaneous circulation after out of hospital cardiac arrest should have an urgent cardiac catheterisation, including patients with normal post resuscitation ECGs.”

What are the advantages and disadvantages of this approach?

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

This question is essentially the same as Question 18 from the first paper of 2018, except that this time the examiners asked for "advantages and disadvantages" instead of "pros and cons".  Sensitive readers may find themselves awake at night, wondering what sort of hidden meaning might be lurking in these seemingly random changes. On one hand, this certainly does not look like a deliberate creative decision; on the other hand, surely every inch of this exam paper must be lovingly crafted by experts in medical education? To believe otherwise would be to go mad. Before the reader loses all hope, here are the advantages and disadvantages of urgent post-cardiac-arrest angiography:

Pros Advantages:

  • Angiography for all would pick up coronary artery disease which would otherwise be missed:
    • ST changes in the ECG post arrest are difficult to interpret 
    • History of chest pain may not be available
    • There is often coronary disease without ECG changes: of the patients who had no ECG changes, Hollenbeck et al (2014) found an acute thrombotic coronary occlusion in 26%.
  • To exclude coronary artery disease is an important step in the process of determining the causes of the cardiac arrest
  • Patients undergoing angiography receive a "greater intensity of care" (Lemkes et al, 2016) - they are resuscitated more aggressively, get seen by more doctors, receive early anticoagulation and have more mechanical / pharmacological support, which could translate into better outcomes.
  • Multiple studies have demonstrated improved outcomes in patients who had no ST changes and who ended up having a PCI for a clinically significant stenosis (Spaulding et al, 1997Dumas et al, 2010)
  • There is society support for this practice (AHA/ACC, ESC/ERC)

Cons Disadvantages:

  • Cardiac arrest is not uniformly a phenomenon of coronary artery disease, i.e. there are many noncardiac causes, of which several (eg. SAH) would surely not benefit from the obligatory loading doses of dual antiplatelets. This is an argument against immediately rushing to the cath lab.
  • Angiography may exacerbate the acute kidney injury which often accompanies the post-resuscitation syndrome, mainly by means of a contrast load.
  • Even where there is coronary artery disease, not all patients can be stented, and the survival benefit of angiography seems to be limited to those patients in whom stenting was successful. In about 25% of patients undergoing PCI, there is either no lesion or a non-stentable lesion, even when there are ST changes (and if there aren't, that proportion rises to 75%) according to Dumas et al (2010)
  • Even where there is stentable disease, there may be no mortality benefit to stenting it, because outcome depends more on the global ischaemic damage from "down-time" than the events in local coronary territories. SWEDEHEART study (Wester et al, 2018) certainly did not find any mortality difference between patients who had early PCI versus those who did not, even though 43% of the patients were found to have 90% stenosis in one of their vessels.
  • If stenting is so good for outcomes, then stenting all the lesions should give maximal benefit - but in fact it seems the fewer stents you do, the better. The CULPRIT-SHOCK trial (Thiele et al, 2017) found improvement in mortality if the angiographer limited their post-arrest intervention to just the culprit lesion, with both mortality and risk of AKI
  • Even when there is coronary artery disease, and where you end up stenting it immediately, there does not appear to be a substantial survival benefit. The COACT trial from the Netherlands (Lemkes et al, 2019) found that immediate angiography following cardiac arrest without ST elevation did not improve survival at 90 days. Unlike the PROCAT registry, only 20% of the COACT patients had an acute coronary lesion (33% in the "immediate angiography" group).   

What's happened since the last time this appeared in 2018?

  • Jentzer et al published a trial in (2018), specifically in February of 2018 (i.e. long after the examiners would have stopped thinking about this question paper, but before was inflicted on the trainees in March). Survival was much better in the angio group (56.2% vs 31%) as was the neurological outcome (28% vs 11%). However, 
  • Verma (2020) performed a meta-analysis of about 3500 patients, and found little difference in mortality or outcome; rather, the 30-day mortality was more related to the presentation comorbidities 
  • The TOMAHAWK trial (Desch et al, 2021) looked at a cohort of 554 patients and also did not find any mortality benefit at 30 days.
  • Song et al (2021) used the GRACE risk score and found that patients with a high score (i.e. old age, history of CCf or MI, tachycardia or hypotensive, with ST-segment depression, AKI, raise cardiac enzymes) seem to have some survival benefit from early angiography.

References

Lemkes, Jorrit S., et al. "Coronary angiography after cardiac arrest: Rationale and design of the COACT trial.American heart journal 180 (2016): 39-45.

Lemkes, Jorrit S., et al. "Coronary angiography after cardiac arrest without ST-segment elevation." New England Journal of Medicine 380.15 (2019): 1397-1407.

Spaulding, Christian M., et al. "Immediate coronary angiography in survivors of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." New England Journal of Medicine 336.23 (1997): 1629-1633.

Hollenbeck, Ryan D., et al. "Early cardiac catheterization is associated with improved survival in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest without STEMI." Resuscitation 85.1 (2014): 88-95.

Dumas, Florence, et al. "Immediate Percutaneous Coronary Intervention Is Associated With Better Survival After Out-of-Hospital Cardiac ArrestClinical Perspective: Insights From the PROCAT (Parisian Region Out of Hospital Cardiac Arrest) Registry.Circulation: Cardiovascular Interventions 3.3 (2010): 200-207.

Geri, Guillaume, et al. "Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention is associated with improved short-and long-term survival after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." Circulation: Cardiovascular Interventions 8.10 (2015): e002303.

Callaway, Clifton W., et al. "Part 8: post–cardiac arrest care: 2015 American Heart Association guidelines update for cardiopulmonary resuscitation and emergency cardiovascular care." Circulation 132.18 suppl 2 (2015): S465-S482.

Nolan, Jerry P., et al. "European resuscitation council and european society of intensive care medicine guidelines for post-resuscitation care 2015: section 5 of the european resuscitation council guidelines for resuscitation 2015." Resuscitation 95 (2015): 202-222.

Wester, Axel, et al. "Coronary angiographic findings and outcomes in patients with sudden cardiac arrest without ST-elevation myocardial infarction: A SWEDEHEART study." Resuscitation 126 (2018): 172-178.

Jentzer, Jacob C., et al. "Early coronary angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention are associated with improved outcomes after out of hospital cardiac arrest." Resuscitation 123 (2018): 15-21.

Verma, Beni R., et al. "Coronary angiography in patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest without ST-segment elevation: a systematic review and meta-analysis." Cardiovascular Interventions 13.19 (2020): 2193-2205.

Song, Hwan, et al. "Which Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest Patients without ST-Segment Elevation Benefit from Early Coronary Angiography? Results from the Korean Hypothermia Network Prospective Registry." Journal of Clinical Medicine 10.3 (2021): 439.

Desch et al., "Angiography after Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest without ST-Segment Elevation" N Engl J Med 2021;epublished August 29th

Question 16 - 2020, Paper 2

The following questions relate to targeted critical care transthoracic echocardiography (Level 1 haemodynamic assessment) performed in the ICU.

a)    In a patient with suspected pericardial tamponade:

i.    Which view on transthoracic echocardiography would you use to assess the heart and why?    (10% marks)

ii.    Describe three features of pericardial tamponade that you would expect to see in this view.    (30% marks)

b)    In a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease who is cold, clammy and hypotensive, describe how you would assess left ventricular systolic function in the parasternal short axis (PSSA) view.    (30% marks)

c)    In a previously healthy patient with a traumatic leg amputation, describe how you would assess volume status in the subcostal view.    (30% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

a)

i. Subxiphoid view is the single best view, if you could only choose one view:

  • It is available while CPR is in progress, 
  • It is convenient to perform this in a supine patient, and
  • The most dependent portion of the heart is nearest to your probe, and that is where the effusion is most likely to be

ii. Features of tamponade in this view:

  • Dilated inferior vena cava
  • Right atrial collapse in systole
  • Diastolic collapse of right atrium and right ventricle
  • Hepatic vein flow reversal
  • Septal "bounce"

Theoretically, one could also list "a visible pericardial effusion", and that would accurate, but would probably score no marks because of obviousness.

b) A patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease who is cold, clammy and hypotensive? Surely it could not be cardiogenic shock? It's hard to know why that extra sentence was added. Also, the parasternal short axis is specified. From Mitchell et al (2019):

  • Linear dimensions (change in the LV cavity size on M-mode)
  • Wall motion abnormalities, scanning from base to apex
  • Ejection fraction by biplane disk summation

Also, though they might not be assessing LV systolic function strictly speaking, the PSAX view gives you an assessment of the ventricular size and wall thickness. 

c) Volume assessment on the subcostal view could be performed using:

  • Chamber volumes (ie. qualitatively collapsed looking ventricles, "kissing walls")
  • Size of the IVC: <10mm diameter suggests that the patient will respond well to a fluid challenge, but overall the static diameter of the IVC is not especially predictive of anything (Desai & Garry, 2018)
  • Distensibility index of IVC, in mechanically ventilated patients: the percentage variation of the IVC during inspiration verses expiration. 18% variation is 90% sensitive (Barbier et al, 2004)
  • Collapsibility index of SVC, in spontaneously breathing patients: the percentage variation of the IVC during expiration divided by the maximum diameter. 

References

Question 19 - 2020, Paper 2

With regards to veno-arterial extra-corporeal membrane oxygenation (VA-ECMO):

a)    List six major conditions for which VA-ECMO is indicated.    (40% marks)

b)    List four contraindications for VA-ECMO.    (40% marks)

c)    List four life threatening complications of VA-ECMO.    (20% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

This weird question asked for lists, which means that it would have been theoretically possible to score full marks with fourteen lines of text.

a) Six major conditions for which VA-ECMO is indicated:

  • Failure to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass
  • Cardiogenic shock of any cause
  • Cardiac arrest from a reversible cause (i.e. ECPR)
  • Bridge to cardiac transplant or LVAD
  • Graft failure following cardiac transplantation
  • Perioperative support for surgery requiring cardiac arrest or cardiopulmonary bypass

b) Four contraindications for VA ECMO:

  • Contraindications to anticoagulation: recent surgery, uncontrolled bleeding, intracranial haemorrhage, DIC (eg. sepsis, Ebola)
  • Irreversible condition
  • Contraindications for heart/lung transplant
  • Major immunosuppression (eg. bone marrow transplant)

c) Four life-threatening complications for VA ECMO:

  • LV distension and pulmonary haemorrhage (with VA ECMO)
  • Cardiac chamber thrombosis (with VA ECMO)
  • Bleeding complications (eg. intracranial haemorrhage)
  • Embolic phenomena (air bubbles,  clots)

References

All, literally all of this comes from the ELSO documentation.

Specifically, the ELSO Guidelines General v1.4 were of the greatest use.

Question 30.1 - 2020, Paper 2

A 69-year-old female has been admitted to the ICU for monitoring, after an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Her routine admission ECG is shown on page 12 (ECG 30.1).

long qt

a)    Describe the ECG and the diagnosis.    (25% marks)

b)    Name three drugs that could contribute to the manifestation of this ECG pattern. (15% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The already challenging process of finding ECGs which the college remove from their published papers (so they can reuse them) has been rendered even more challenging in the Cursed Second Paper of 2020 which was returned to the candidates without any official answers. So: this SAQ sounds like it might have involved some kind of QT interval prolongation, but let's face it, it could have been any of these drug-induced ECG changes.

So:

a) this is QT interval prologation  (it is about 512 msec in its uncorrected state, or 585 corrected for heart rate).

b) 

Drugs which cause this (also see www.qtdrugs.org)

  • Cardiac agents
    • Anti-arrhythmics (Type Ia, Ic, and III)
    • Calcium channel-blockers (some) (e.g. bepridil, isradipine, nicardipine)
  • Anti-psychotic agents
    • Phenothiazines (some) (e.g. thioridazine, mesoridazine)
    • Butyrophenones (e.g. haloperidol, droperidol)
  • Anti-depressants (some) (e.g. tricyclics, fluoxetine, sertraline, venlaflaxine)
  • Anti-infective agents
  • Fluoroquinolones (some) (e.g. sparfloxacin, gatifloxacin, moxifloxicin)
  • Macrolides (some) (e.g. erythromycin, clarithromycin)
  • Miscellaneous (pentamidine, amantadine, tetracyclines, foscarnet, quinine, chloroquine)
  • Neurologic agents
    • Carbamazepine, fosphenytoin, sumatriptan, zolmitriptan, naratriptan
  • Organophosphates
  • Gastrointestinal agents (e.g. cisapride, ipecac, octreotide, dolasetron)
  • Other (e.g. cocaine, diphenhydramine, methadone, tacrolimus, tamoxifen, probucol, tizanidine, salmeterol)

References

Lionte, Catalina, Cristina Bologa, and Laurentiu Sorodoc. "Toxic and drug-induced changes of the electrocardiogram." Advances in Electrocardiograms: Clinical Applications. 1st ed. Rijeka, Croatia: InTech (2012): 271-96.

Question 30.2 - 2020, Paper 2

A 76-year-old male presented to Emergency Department with chest pain.

 from LITFL

a)    Describe the ECG shown on page 13 (ECG 30.2).    (15% marks)

b)    Describe the anatomical lesion/s resulting in these ECG changes and the mechanism of the changes in the aVR lead.    (25% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The already challenging process of finding ECGs which the college remove from their published papers (so they can reuse them) has been rendered even more challenging in the Cursed Second Paper of 2020 which was returned to the candidates without any official answers. So: this SAQ sounds like it might have involved ST changes in aVR, detailed by Robert Buttner and Ed Burns from LITFL. The image itself orginates from johnsonfrancis.org.

So:

a) The ECG changes in this tracing:

  • ST elevation in aVR
  • ST depression in other leads, most prominent in I, II and V4-V6

b) The anatomical lesion is proximal LAD occlusion, resulting in basal ischaemia.

The mechanism, to quote directly from Johnson Francis:

"ST segment elevation in aVR in proximal left LAD occlusion before first septal is thought to be due to transmural ischemia of the basal part of the septum. Injury current of basal part of septum is directed towards right shoulder and aVR."

References

Question 30.3 - 2020, Paper 2

A 57-year-old male patient is admitted to the ICU with urosepsis secondary to an obstructed urinary tract. He is haemodynamically stable with no chest pain. His ECG is shown on page 14 (ECG 30.3).

LITFL

a) What is the most likely diagnosis, and the immediate pharmacological therapy?    (20% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The already challenging process of finding ECGs which the college remove from their published papers (so they can re-use them) has been rendered even more challenging in the Cursed Second Paper of 2020 which was returned to the candidates without any official answers. Fifty seven? UROSEPSIS? What the hell could this mean? The imagination runs wild. Surely, you think to yourself, this must have been some kind of electrolyte abnormality which gives rise to urinary calculi as well as to a clearly obvious ECG abnormality, and which has some emergency pharmacological treatment? Hypercalcemia fits that description. This ECG from the Atlas of Electrocardiography via LITFL has a shortened QT interval, which is characteristic of this condition. Bisphosphonates, calcitonin and IV hydration would be the immediate pharmacological steps.

References

Question 2 - 2021, Paper 2

Discuss the use of trans-oesophageal echocardiography (TOE) in the ICU. Use the following headings in your answer: rationale for use, data obtained, and how it assists clinical management, associated risks, and limitations.

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The act of helping the trainees structure their answer by offering specific headings is laudable, as without it this question could have easily turned into a trap for people who misunderstood the depth of what is expected (for example, from reading the first sentence, one would not immediately develop the impression that one needs to discuss the risks. 

"Rationale for use" of TOE can probably be interpreted as "scenarios which call for the use of TOE instead of TTE", as that would make the greatest amount of sense. A "rationale for use" which includes all the various applications of cardiac sonography would not be a sensible way to answer. Thus:

  • Superior resolution for imaging posterior cardiac structures
  • Does not interfere with CPR
  • Does not require an intact chest wall (thus, suitable for assessing patients with severe anterior chest wall burns, extensive rib fractures, and patients following cardiac surgery).

Data obtained

  • Stuctural data:
    • Intracardiac shunts and septal defects
    • Valve structure and function
    • Vegetations
    • Aortic dissection
    • Intracardiac thrombus
    • Guidance for procedures, eg. ECMO cannula positioning
  • Functional data:
    • Some contractility and systolic function data (though TTE is better for this)
    • Preload sensitivity (respiratory phasic size variation of the SVC)
    • Shunt flow 
    • Doppler analysis of pulmonary venous inflow
    • Cardiac tamponade effects
    • Cardiac motility and efficacy of resuscitation efforts during cardiac arrest

How it assists clinical management

  • Directs haemodynamic management (eg. by identifying fluid responsive patients)
  • Directs duration of antibiotic therapy (by identifying vegetation)
  • Assesses the success of procedures (eg. TAVI, ECMO cannulation)
  • Helps estimate risk of stroke prior to cardioversion of a patient in AF
  • Assists decisionmaking in cardiac arrest (where LV wall movement are absent, the patient is  highly unlikely to achieve ROSC).

Associated risks

  • Each procedure has a small but non-zero risk of major complications, including oesophageal perforation, endotracheal tube dislodgement, and death.
  • The nasogastric tube is often in the way, and ends up being removed. It then needs to be reinserted, with attendent complications.
  • In the non-intubated patient, the use of sedation carries its own risks.

Limitations

  • Invasive
  • Potential risk of cross-infection
  • Probes are expensive and experts who can use them are even more expensive
  • Many contraindications, eg. oral or oesophageal surgery, upper GI anastomosis, oesophageal stricture or diverticulum, severe coagulopathy, etc
  • TTE is a better modality for assessment of the apex as well as LV and RV function

References

Cheitlin, Melvin D., et al. "ACC/AHA/ASE 2003 guideline update for the clinical application of echocardiography." A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines (ACC/AHA/ASE Committee to Update the 1997 Guidelines for the Clinical Application of Echocardiography). American College of Cardiology Foundation and American Heart Association (2003).

Roscoe, Andrew, and Tim Strang. "Echocardiography in intensive care."Continuing Education in Anaesthesia, Critical Care & Pain 8.2 (2008): 46-49.

Douglas, Pamela S., et al. "ACCF/ASE/ACEP/ASNC/SCAI/SCCT/SCMR 2007 Appropriateness Criteria for Transthoracic and Transesophageal Echocardiography⁎: A Report of the American College of Cardiology Foundation Quality Strategic Directions Committee Appropriateness Criteria Working Group, American Society of Echocardiography, American College of Emergency Physicians, American Society of Nuclear Cardiology, Society for Cardiovascular Angiography and Interventions, Society of Cardiovascular Computed Tomography, and the Society for ...." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 50.2 (2007): 187-204.

Mayo, Paul H., Mangala Narasimhan, and Seth Koenig. "Critical care transesophageal echocardiography." Chest 148.5 (2015): 1323-1332.

Question 9 - 2021, Paper 2

Outline your approach to the assessment and management of atrial fibrillation in the critically ill patient

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

Cause of AF in ICU is usually non-structural, reversible, and non-cardiac (i.e. related to the cause of the non-cardiac critical illness). Common causes in the ICU include:

  • Catecholamine excess, whether exogenous (eg. adrenaline infusion) or endogenous (SAH, stress, pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis)
  • Atrial distension (Pulmonary hypertension, OSA, PE, septal defects, valvular disease)
  • Abnormality of conducting system: 
    • Congenital cardiac disease, eg. septal defect
    • Infiltrative cardiac disease, eg. amyloidosis
    • Ischaemic heart disease
    • Age-related fibrotic changes
    • Haemochromatosis/iron overload
    • Hypothermia
  • Increased atrial automaticity / irritation
    • Drugs: Alcohol, caffeine, catecholamines
    • Electrolyte derangement
    • Myocarditis

Thus:

Assessment of the cause and consequences of AF

  • History, looking for features of OSA, ischaemic heart disease, pulmonary hypertension, prior episodes ("paroxysms") of AF, or recently ceased antiarrhythmic medications
  • Clinical examination, looking for evidence of heart failure
  • 12-lead ECG, looking for ischaemia
  • Blood biochemistry, looking for electrolyte derangement
  • Troponin, looking for ischaemia or myocarditis
  • Thyroid function tests, looking for hyperthyroidism
  • Scrutiny of the ICU monitoring equipment, to determine the duration of AF, to see if it coincides with some specific event (eg. the insertion of a line where the guidewire became unusually adventurous)
  • CXR, to look for radiological signs of atrial dilatation or cardiomegaly
  • TTE, to assess the effect on cardiac function

Assessment of the risk of stroke from AF

  • Duration of AF: if it started in the ICU, this should be easy to determine from the monitoring systems.
  • Risk stratification tools, such as the  CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system, can help determine the risk of stroke (A score of 1 equates to a risk of 1.3%; the maximum score is 9, with an associated stroke risk of 15.2%.)
  • TOE, looking for clots in the right atrial appendage, would be helpful if cardioversion is contemplated

Management options

  • Addressing the cause:
    • Management of the primary pathology (eg. shock state, sepsis, PE, MI, etc)
    • Correction of correctable predisposing causes (eg. hypoxia, acidosis, electrolyte derangement)
  • Cardioversion :
    • best suited to recent-onset AF (with the first 48 hours), or where TOE has demonstrated the absence of clot in the left atrial appendage
    • Should be considered in scenarios where the AF has produced a substantial haemodynamic disadvantage
    • Usually, in the ICU population, this is ineffective in the medium-term, as the pathology which is driving the AF first needs to resolve before sinus rhythm can be sustained.
    • Chemical (eg. amiodarone, IV magnesium, beta-blockers) and electrical cardioversion have a similar risk profile
    • In general, rate control and rhythm control have similar outcome effects, but rate control seems to have some advantage in the outpatient cohort
  • Rate control
    • Aim to reduce the rate to 80-100
    • Best suited for patients who are not hemodynamically compromised, and in whom the duration of the AF is unknown
    • Amiodarone or vernakalant are first-line for haemodynamically unstable patients
    • Beta-blockers are the first line for haemodynamically stable patients
    • Cardioselective calcium channel blockers such as verapamil or diltiazem are an alternative for people for whom beta-blockers are not appropriate (eg. asthma, COPD, peripheral vascular disease)
    • Digoxin in the ICU is generally less effective, but might be a better option for patients with poor LV function, as it has a subtle inotropic effect
  • Anticoagulation
    • Options include unfractionated heparin infusion, LMWH, warfarin or a DOAC such as dabigatran rivaroxaban or apixaban
    • If you are going to anticoagulate, anticoagulation with something should continue for at least 3 weeks before and 4 weeks after their TOE-cardioversion.

References

Wyse, D. G., et al. "A comparison of rate control and rhythm control in patients with atrial fibrillation." The New England journal of medicine 347.23 (2002): 1825-1833.

Van Gelder, Isabelle C., et al. "A comparison of rate control and rhythm control in patients with recurrent persistent atrial fibrillation." New England Journal of Medicine 347.23 (2002): 1834-1840.

Jörg Carlsson, J., et al. "Randomized trial of rate-control versus rhythm-control in persistent atrial fibrillation: The Strategies of Treatment of Atrial Fibrillation (STAF) study." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 41.10 (2003): 1690-1696.

Hohnloser, Stefan H., et al. "Rhythm or rate control in atrial fibrillation—Pharmacological Intervention in Atrial Fibrillation (PIAF): a randomised trial." The Lancet 356.9244 (2000): 1789-1794.

Yoshida, Takuo, et al. "Epidemiology, prevention, and treatment of new-onset atrial fibrillation in critically ill: a systematic review." Journal of intensive care 3.1 (2015): 19.

Caldeira, Daniel, Cláudio David, and Cristina Sampaio.  "Rate versus rhythm control in atrial fibrillation and clinical outcomes: updated systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials." Archives of cardiovascular diseases 105.4 (2012): 226-238.

ARTUCIO, HERNAN, and MAXIMO PEREIRA. "Cardiac arrhythmias in critically ill patients: epidemiologic study." Critical care medicine 18.12 (1990): 1383-1388.

Reddy, Madhu, et al. "VERNAKALANT FOR RAPID CARDIOVERSION OF RECENT ONSET ATRIAL FIBRILLATION: A META-ANALYSIS." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 63.12_S (2014).

Morrison, Laurie J., et al. "Part 8: advanced life support 2010 international consensus on cardiopulmonary resuscitation and emergency cardiovascular care science with treatment recommendations." Circulation 122.16 suppl 2 (2010): S345-S421.

Arrigo, Mattia, Dominique Bettex, and Alain Rudiger. "Management of Atrial Fibrillation in Critically Ill Patients." Critical Care Research and Practice 2014 (2014).

Kanji, Salmaan, et al. "Epidemiology and management of atrial fibrillation in medical and noncardiac surgical adult intensive care unit patients." Journal of critical care 27.3 (2012): 326-e1.

Kanji, Salmaan, et al. "Treatment of new-onset atrial fibrillation in noncardiac intensive care unit patients: A systematic review of randomized controlled trials*." Critical care medicine 36.5 (2008): 1620-1624.

January, Craig T., et al. "2014 AHA/ACC/HRS guideline for the management of patients with atrial fibrillation." Circulation (2014): CIR-0000000000000041.

Sibley, Stephanie, and John Muscedere. "New-onset atrial fibrillation in critically ill patients." Canadian respiratory journal 22.3 (2015): 179-182.

Herzog, Eyal, et al. "Pathway for the Management of Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter.Critical pathways in cardiology16.2 (2017): 47-52.

Question 13 - 2021, Paper 2

a)    Explain the medical management of a patient with confirmed Type B aortic dissection.
(60% marks).

b)    List the indications for consideration of non-medical management of this condition.
(40% marks)

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The question asked "explain", not "list", which means a bit of discourse is called for:

Medical management:

  • Overall management goals:
    • Decrease aortic wall stress 
    • Thus, reduce the risk of rupture
    • Decrease the risk of propagation of the dissection flap
    • Maintain the perfusion of compromised organs
  • Haemodynamic objectives which serve these goals: 
    • Decrease cardiac contractility (dP/dT)
    • Decrease blood pressure
    • Decrease heart rate
  • Options to achieve these goals:
    • Labetalol infusion (15mg bolus, then 5mg/hr)
    • Alternatively, esmolol, verapamil, diltiazem
    • Once contractility and rate control is achieved,
      vasodilators can also be used (nitroprusside, clevidipine, etc)
    • Analgesia +/- sedation to decrease sympathetic output
  • Endpoints of therapy:
    • Systolic blood pressure 100-120 mmHg
    • HR < 70
    • Improved surrogate measures of organ perfusion

Indications for surgical management:

  • Complicated Type B dissection:
    • Features suggesting instability:
      • Aortic rupture
      • Refractory hypertension
      • Aortic total diameter of > 4.5 cm
      • Extension of dissection on repeat imaging
    • Ischaemia:
      • Visceral and renal ischaemia
      • Lower extremities ischaemia
      • Spinal cord ischaemia
    • Malperfusion:
      • Paraparesis or paraplegia
      • Abdominal pain, nausea, or diarrhea
      • Renal failure or LFT derangement
  • Uncomplicated Type B dissection
    • Can usually be managed conservatively
    • If the aorta is dilated (>4cm) or the false lumen is large (>22mm), surgical management may still be preferred to prevent long-derm aneurysmal degeneration

References

Aggarwal, Bhuvnesh, and Chad E. Raymond. "Therapeutic goals in patients with acute aortic dissection: management before surgery." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 65.15 (2015): 1599-1600.

Hiratzka, Loren F., et al. "2010 ACCF/AHA/AATS/ACR/ASA/SCA/SCAI/SIR/STS/SVM guidelines for the diagnosis and management of patients with thoracic aortic disease." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 55.14 (2010): e27-e129.

Goldfinger, Judith Z., et al. "Thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 64.16 (2014): 1725-1739.

Evangelista, Arturo, et al. "Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection: a 20-year experience of collaborative clinical research." Circulation 137.17 (2018): 1846-1860.

Tran, T. Paul, and Ali Khoynezhad. "Current management of type B aortic dissection." Vascular health and risk management 5 (2009): 53.

Harky, Amer, et al. "Systematic review and meta-analysis of acute type B thoracic aortic dissection, open, or endovascular repair." Journal of vascular surgery 69.5 (2019): 1599-1609.

Question 23.1 - 2021, Paper 2

An 85-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department following a collapse. There was no loss of consciousness. His ECG (ECG 23.1) is shown on page 9.

[it shown here. This page 9.] 

ECG

a)    List the major abnormalities.    (5% marks)

b)    List the likely aetiologies for these abnormalities.    (20% marks)

c)    List the potential cardiac complication is this patient.    (5% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The college answer, let alone the ECG image, are not available at the time of writing, making this a hilarious exercise in trying to guess what the examiners were thinking. What condition has "major abnormalities" on ECG, causes octogenarians to collapse without passing out, has several possible aetiological causes and is associated with cardiac complications?

Well, reader, that could be damn near anything. The list could include:

  • Conduction abnormalities, eg. complete heart block
  • Ischaemia
  • Arrhythmias, eg. AF or VT
  • Implantable device malfunction
  • Electrolyte disturbance

It probably would not include inherited channelopathies and weird conduction disorders like WPW syndrome or arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy, because the patient is 85. 

Fortunately, Kate Wagner from Jonathan Begley's study group found the exact ECG 

that was used for this paper, in Wikipedia of all places. It was apparently this Mobitz Type II block. That means this elderly man had a Stokes-Adams attack. Thank you, Wagner et al. If Deranged Physiology had merch, some would have been sent your way.

Thus:

a) Major abnormalities: 

  • RBBB
  • Mobitz Type II AV block
  • Bradycardia (sinus rate drops down to ~ 50)

b) Likely etiologies:

  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Anterior MI
  • Age-related degenerative change (Lenègre-Lev disease)
  • Cardiac surgery, eg. mitral valve repair

c) Cardiac complications:

  • Sudden P-wave asystole
  • Progression to complete heart block

References

Question 23.2 - 2021, Paper 2

A 48-year-old male presented with chest pain. His ECG (ECG 23.2) is shown on page 10.

https://litfl.com/vt-versus-svt-ecg-library/#:~:text=their%20previous%20ECGs-,example%202,-%3Cimg%20data-attachment

a)    List the abnormal ECG findings.    (15% marks)

b)    List two likely differential diagnoses consistent with these ECG finidngs.    (10% marks)

c)    Explain how to differentiate these two differential diagnoses using ECG criteria.    (20% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The college answer and ECG image were both not available at the time of writing, so it is impossible to accurately reconstruct the original ECG, but judging from the question, it would have to have been either a question about Brugada criteria or Sgarbossa criteria. Seeing as the differentials generated by the application of Sgarbossa criteria are boring (they're infarcting, or they're not infarcting), the author settled on Brugada. The ECG is an example of VT from the LITFL page on broad complex tachycardias (example 2, to be precise).

So, 

a) Major abnormalities:

  • Tachycardia (rate almost 200)
  • Broad QRS complexes (~150 msec)
  • Extreme "northwest" axis

b)  Two differentials:

  • VT
  • SVT with bundle branch block

c) how to differentiate these two differential diagnoses using ECG criteria:

  • Brugada criteria:
    • Absence of RS complex in all precordial leads
    • R to S interval more than 100 msec in one precordial lead
    • AV dissociation (P waves and QRS complexes at different rates)
    • Morphology criteria for VT present in V1-2 and V6
      • LBBB pattern:
        • Initial R more than 40ms
        • Slurred or notched downwards leg of S wave in leads V1 or V2
        • Beginning of Q to nadir QS >60 ms in V1 or V2
        • Q or QS in V6
      • RBBB pattern:
        • Monofasic R or qR in V1
        • R taller than R' (rabbit-ear sign)
        • rS in V6
    • If any of these criteria are satisfied, VT is present
    • In this case,
      • AV dissociation is present, random P waves can be seen in V1

References

Question 23.3 - 2021, Paper 2

A 35-year-old male is brought to the Emergency Department after an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. His ECG (ECG 23.3) is shown on page 11.

a)    What was the likely underlying rhythm at the time of the arrest? Please provide your reasoning.
(10% marks)

b)    List three likely aetiologies for these abnormalities.    (15% marks)

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

The college answer and ECG image were both not available at the time of writing, so it is impossible to accurately reconstruct the original ECG. This could have also been long QT syndrome (this time a congenital one, because the patient is young) but because we've already used that for another question in this paper, this one had to be something else. Let's go with Brugada syndrome. This ECG is recycled from Question 18.2 from the first paper of 2014.

a) The most likely rhythm would have been polymorphic VT or VF, as that is one of the diagnostic criteria for Brugada syndrome, and the ECG demonstrates characteristic ECG changes:

  • "Coved" ST elevation:  the QRS complex finishes high, and the ST-segment slopes diagonally to form an inverted T-wave in V1 and V2
  • Inverted T waves

b) Three possible aetiologies here are:

References

Berne, Paola, and Josep Brugada. "Brugada syndrome 2012." Circulation Journal 76.7 (2012): 1563-1571.

Hauer, R. N. W. "Brugada Syndrome or Brugada Mimicry?." Cardiac Arrhythmias 2003. Springer, Milano, 2004. 335-338.

Aksu, Uğur, et al. "Massive pulmonary embolism mimicking electrocardiographic pattern of Brugada syndrome." The American journal of emergency medicine 34.5 (2016): 933-e1.

Mehta, Sahil, et al. "Hypercalcemia due to rhabdomyolysis mimicking Brugada syndrome." Pacing and clinical electrophysiology 32.11 (2009): e14.

Question 18 - 2022, Paper 1

Discuss the role of extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation (ECPR) in cardiac arrest. 

Include in your answer, the rationale for its use, the advantages, disadvantages, and appropriate patient selection.
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

ECPR has never been seen in the CICM exams until this paper.

Rationale

  • Survival from cardiac arrest remains poor even in well-resourced urban medical systems where bystander CPR is common.
  • This is partly because conventional CPR yields a meagre 50% of normal cardiac output at best
  • This poor cardiac output results in a low flow state which progressively diminishes the chances of a successful resuscitation
  • Many causes of cardiac arrest (MI, massive PE, overdose, primary arrhythmia) are amenable to intervention, if only the patient could be sustained for long enough to benefit from it
  • From this, it follows that mortality from cardiac arrest could be improved by the early use of VA ECMO to support the circulation while the cause of cardiac arrest is being found and reversed. 

Advantages

  • Rapid restoration of circulation on ECMO should protect from organ system damage
  • Facilitates coronary and endovascular interventions
  • Carefully selected patients have had good outcomes:
  • The cost of the program is comparatively lower than the cost of similarly low-yield interventions which still associate with high mortality (eg. radiation therapy and chemotherapy).

Disadvantages

  • Expensive, mainly in terms of staff (in the sense that not everybody is trained in VA ECMO cannulation, and not everybody trained in it is willing to go on a 24/7 roster)
  • May facilitate the survival of patients with profound neurological disabilities
  • May prolong the dying process in some patients, preventing the "good death".
  • Though ethically withdrawal of ECMO support is equivalent to the decision to stop CPR when the patient is not expected to make any recovery, practically it may be difficult to contemplate discontinuing ECMO support from the viewpoint of the family.
  • The availability of this technique in only dense urban areas may increase the inequality in healthcare availability between metropolitan and rural populations

Patient selection

  • ELSO criteria:
    • Age < 70 years
    • Witnessed cardiac arrest
    • Initial cardiac rhythm of VT/VF (PEA)
    • Low flow (cardiac arrest to initiation of full ECMO flow) of <60 minutes
    • EtCO2 > 10mmHg
  • 2CHEER criteria:
    • age 12-70 years

      AND meets ALL of the following criteria:

      • the cardiac arrest is likely to be of primary cardiac or respiratory cause

      • the cardiac arrest was witnessed by a bystander or paramedic or hospital staff member

      • chest compressions commenced within 10 minutes

      • initial cardiac rhythm of ventricular fibrillation (VF)

      • immediate availability of a mechanical CPR device with paramedic staff

      • the cardiac arrest duration (collapse to arrival at ED) has been < 60minutes

    • OR meets ONE of the following criteria:

      • Severe hypothermia (<32°C) due to accidental exposure

      •  Severe overdose with β-blockers, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin or other agents causing profound reversible myocardial depression and/or cardiac rhythm disturbance

      • Any other cause where there is likely to be reversibility of the cardiac arrest if an artificial circulation can be provided (e.g. massive pulmonary embolism)

References

Abrams, Darryl, et al. "Extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults: evidence and implications." Intensive Care Medicine (2021): 1-15.

Alfalasi, Reem, et al. "A Comparison between Conventional and Extracorporeal Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation in Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest: A Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis." Healthcare. Vol. 10. No. 3. MDPI, 2022.

Belohlavek, Jan, et al. "Effect of intra-arrest transport, extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and immediate invasive assessment and treatment on functional neurologic outcome in refractory out-of-hospital cardiac arrest: a randomized clinical trial." JAMA 327.8 (2022): 737-747.

Bernard, Stephen A., et al. "Outcomes of patients with refractory out-of-hospital cardiac arrest transported to an ECMO centre compared with transport to non-ECMO centres." Critical Care and Resuscitation 24.1 (2022): 7-13.

Dennis, Mark, et al. "Prospective observational study of mechanical cardiopulmonary resuscitation, extracorporeal membrane oxygenation and early reperfusion for refractory cardiac arrest in Sydney: the 2CHEER study." Critical Care and Resuscitation 22.1 (2020): 26-34.
Fitzgerald, Kevin R., et al. "Cardiac output during cardiopulmonary resuscitation at various compression rates and durations." American Journal of Physiology-Heart and Circulatory Physiology 241.3 (1981): H442-H448.
Gravesteijn, Benjamin Yaël, et al. "Neurological outcome after extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation for in-hospital cardiac arrest: a systematic review and meta-analysis." Critical Care 24.1 (2020): 1-12.

Perkins, Gavin D., et al. "A randomized trial of epinephrine in out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." New England Journal of Medicine 379.8 (2018): 711-721.

Reynolds, Joshua C., et al. "Association between duration of resuscitation and favorable outcome after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest: implications for prolonging or terminating resuscitation." Circulation 134.25 (2016): 2084-2094.
Richardson, Alexander Sacha C., et al. "Extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults. Interim guideline consensus statement from the extracorporeal life support organization." ASAIO journal (American Society for Artificial Internal Organs: 1992) 67.3 (2021): 221.
Silver, D. L., et al. "Cardiac output during CPR: a comparison of two methods." Critical Care Medicine (1981).

Yannopoulos, Demetris, et al. "Advanced reperfusion strategies for patients with out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and refractory ventricular fibrillation (ARREST): a phase 2, single centre, open-label, randomised controlled trial." The lancet 396.10265 (2020): 1807-1816.

Stub, Dion, et al. "Refractory cardiac arrest treated with mechanical CPR, hypothermia, ECMO and early reperfusion (the CHEER trial)." Resuscitation 86 (2015): 88-94.

Question 22 - 2022, Paper 1

a)    Outline the WHO classification system for the causes of pulmonary hypertension.
(30% marks)

b)    Discuss measures to optimise right ventricular function in a patient with known pulmonary hypertension who is intubated for pneumonia.    (70% marks)
 

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

a) 

In brief, the WHO recognises  5 major groups of disease which fall under the pulmonary hypertension heading:

  1. Pulmonary arterial hypertension 
  2. Pulmonary hypertension due to left heart disease
  3. Pulmonary hypertension due to lung disease or hypoxia
  4. Pulmonary hypertension due to chronic PE​​
  5. Pulmonary hypertension due to "unclear multifactorial mechanisms"

These "PH WHO" groups are also known as the Dana Point classification system, so named because the original 2008 symposium on pulmonary hypertension was held in Dana Point, Ca.  

b)

Management of right heart failure 

  • Preload management:
    • Acute failure: increase preload to CVP 8-12 mmHg
    • Chronic failure: decrease preload to CVP 8-12 mmHg (this is the most likely scenario, as they are telling us the patient has known pulmonary hypertension). Thus, the options are:
      • Diuretics (potentially as an infusion)
      • Dialysis for fluid removal (potentially even SCUF)
    • The exact preload is difficult to find, is individual, and is best titrated by using  a PA catheter (CO measurements) or serial TTE/TOE
  • Afterload management:
    • Prevent pulmonary vasoconstriction:
      • Keep PEEP 6-10 cm H2O
      • Keep SpO2 >92%
      • Keep PaCO2 35-45 mmHg
      • Keep pH 7.35-7.45
      • Avoid high dose noradrenaline; prefer to use vasopressin
        • But: keep systemic BP at least above pulmonary BP
      • Position the patient with the "good" lung dependent to encourage blood flow into a more compliant system
    • Increase pulmonary vasodilation:
      • Nitric oxide
      • IV or inhaled prostacycline
      • Bosentan, ambrisentan
      • Sildenafil, tadalafil
      • Riociguat
  • Contractility:
    • Milrinone, for where PA pressure is raised
    • Levosimendan, for where you really need a cardiac output boost
    • Dobutamine is probably not the best choice, but can be resorted to if the patient is in renal failure and cannot tolerate the systemic vasodilation from the other agents

References

Simonneau, Gérald, et al. "Updated clinical classification of pulmonary hypertension." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 54.1s1 (2009): S43-S54.

Simonneau, Gerald, et al. "Updated clinical classification of pulmonary hypertension." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 62.25 (2013): D34-D41.

Galiè, Nazzareno, et al. "2015 ESC/ERS Guidelines for the diagnosis and treatment of pulmonary hypertension." European heart journal (2015): ehv317.

Haddad, François, et al. "Right ventricular function in cardiovascular disease, part II: pathophysiology, clinical importance, and management of right ventricular failure." Circulation 117.13 (2008): 1717-1731.

Ventetuolo, Corey E., and James R. Klinger. "Management of acute right ventricular failure in the intensive care unit." Annals of the American Thoracic Society 11.5 (2014): 811-822.

Patil, Nitin Tanajirao. "Strategies in patients with right ventricular failure on mechanical ventilation." Indian Journal of Respiratory Care 7.1 (2018): 22.

Question 2 - 2022, Paper 2

A 75-year-old patient was admitted to ICU for management of cardiogenic shock after percutaneous coronary artery intervention (PCI). An intra-aortic balloon pump was inserted post procedure. An hour into the ICU admission the nurse alerts you that the diastolic augmentation alarm, set at 100 mmHg, is triggering.
a) List the causes of ineffective diastolic augmentation. (40% marks)

b) Explain the timing of diastolic augmentation in the following 1:2 IABP graphs  (Scenarios 1 to 3 shown below). Outline the physiological consequences of the IABP traces. 

Scenario 1: (20% marks)

Scenario 1

Scenario 2: (20% marks)

Scenario 2

Scenario 3: (20% marks)

Scenario 3

College answer

Not available.

Discussion

Diastolic augmentation is the beneficial increase in aortic pressure which occurs when the balloon inflates in diastole, just as the aortic valve closes. This has a couple of benefits, the chief of which being improved coronary perfusion (but also some extra blood is pushed down into the systemic circulation). This is the effect of diastolic augmentation; which means that ineffective diastolic augmentation could actually mean a whole host of possible problems that result in insufficient diastolic coronary and systemic blood flow. The unready candidate would have had a hard time. To classify these, one method might be to separate them into patient problems, technique problems  and machine problems:

  • Patient problems:
    • Poor cardiac output (because if the stroke volume decreases, there is simply too little ejected blood in the aorta for the pump to displace).
    • Low systemic vascular resistance, i.e. the elastic recoil of the arterial walls which is normally relied upon to enhance the pressure produced by the balloon inflation.
  • Technique problems
    • Poorly chosen balloon: too small for the patient
    • Poorly positioned balloon: too high or too low in the aorta
  • Machine problems
    • The helium pressure has dropped (ie. the balloon is filling incompletely)
    • The balloon is not completely out of its sheath (i.e. the "tail" of the balloon does not get a chance to inflate)
    • The balloon has not unwrapped fully
    • Somebody has decreased the filling volume (most IABP machines have a manual balloon filling volume selector which can be adjusted up or down)

Now, to these traces:

Scenario 1

This is early balloon inflation. It results in:

  • Increased LV oxygen demand, due to increased afterload
  • Decreased LV oxygen supply, due to decreased diastolic perfusion
  • Decreased cardiac output, due to decreased stroke volume

Scenario 2

This is late balloon deflation. It also results in increased LV oxygen demand due to increased afterload, but this time the situation is worse, as it mainly affects isovolumetric contraction, and this is where 90% of myocardial oxygen is usually spent.

Scenario 3

This is late balloon inflation. It decreases diastolic augmentation, which results in decreased coronary perfusion. The balloon seems to be deflating correctly, so afterload does not seem to be affected.

References

Freedman, R. J. "The intra-aortic balloon pump system: current roles and future directions." Journal of applied cardiology 6.5 (1991): 313-318.

Hanlon-Pena, Patricia M., and Susan J. Quaal. "Intra-aortic balloon pump timing: review of evidence supporting current practice." American Journal of Critical Care 20.4 (2011): 323-334.

Question 8 - 2022, Paper 2

Compare and contrast a focused cardiac ultrasound with a formal diagnostic transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE), using the following headings in your answer:
a) Indications (20% marks)
b) Assessments made (40% marks)
c) Limitations (40% marks)

College answer

Most candidates described the indications for a focused cardiac ultrasound, however, the indications for formal diagnostic TTE were less well described (very few candidates included stroke, arrhythmia, peripheral embolus). 
The assessments of a focused cardiac ultrasound were generally well described although the assessments of TTE were less well described, and the windows and modes were infrequently described. The limitations of each study could have been better answered with only a few candidates including TTE cannot exclude IE, left atrial appendage clot, and PFO)

Discussion

The difference between "indications" and "assessments made" is subtle, i.e. the candidates may not have appreciated that "windows and modes" were expected. Is a pericardial effusion an indication, or is it an assessment made of the pericardial space, and in that case, which window should you be mentioning (subxiphoid, parasternal, apical?) In short it is not clear what was expected from the answer, and this appears to be reflected in the marks, where 45% of the candidates scored poorly. It seems from the distribution of marks that the examiners probably did not want a lot of indications to be listed. Thus, in the suggested model answer below, for "indications" only pathologies or broad scenarios are listed, whereas "assessments made" include the specific game-changing findings or answered questions. 

  Focused bedside TTE Formal TTE
Indications

Cardiac arrest

Pulmonary embolism

Suspected tamponade

Undifferentiated shock

Stroke

Cardiac ischaemia

Heart failure

Investigations for murmurs

Stress testing

Investigation of syncope and arrhythmias

Assessments

Pericardial effusion

Cardiac tamponade

LV systolic function

Volume status

RV dilatation (PE)

Cardiac activity during cardiac arrest

LVOT obstruction

Valvular abnormalities

Aortic dissection

Myocardial ischemia (i.e. regional wall motion abnormalities)

RV systolic function

Pulmonary hypertension

Diastolic function assessment

Limitations

Specific, not sensitive

Usually done on smaller machines with poor resolution.

Windows and probe orientation are not always standardised.

Staff performing this assessment may be variably trained, increasing error.

Trained staff may be unfamiliar with the limitations of the technique, and may underestimate its accuracy.

Poor windows or views may result in inaccurate chamber size comparisons, leading to the wrong diagnosis.

Defined scope of practice, limited to specific views (i.e. not a diagnostic investigation)

Requires a skilled sonographer or TTE-trained accredited ICU staff.

Time-consuming; may not be suitable for rapidly making decisions

More difficult to perform serial assessments within a short timeframe. 

Otherwise static: a snapshot assessment in a dynamically changing ICU scenario.

For many ICU patients, all classic views may not be possible.

Not cost-effective (usually requires dedicated staff)

Limitations of both
  • cannot exclude IE, left atrial appendage clot, and PFO

References

Mitchell, Carol, et al. "Guidelines for performing a comprehensive transthoracic echocardiographic examination in adults: recommendations from the American Society of Echocardiography." Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography 32.1 (2019): 1-64.

Spencer, Kirk T., et al. "Focused cardiac ultrasound: recommendations from the American Society of Echocardiography." Journal of the American Society of Echocardiography 26.6 (2013): 567-581.

Andrus, Phillip, and Anthony Dean. "Focused cardiac ultrasound." Global Heart 8.4 (2013): 299-303.

Price, Susanna, Shahana Uddin, and Tom Quinn. "Echocardiography in cardiac arrest." Current opinion in critical care 16.3 (2010): 211-215.

Zafiropoulos, Andreas, et al. "Critical Care Echo Rounds: Echo in cardiac arrest." Echo Research and Practice 1.2 (2014): D15-D21.

Question 23 - 2022, Paper 2

Compare and contrast diastolic heart failure (heart failure with preserved ejection fraction) and systolic heart failure (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction).
You must include the following headings in your answer: pathophysiology, echocardiography features, likely etiologies, and management. 

College answer

The etiology part of the question was generally answered well, however, the answers to the pathophysiology and management parts lacked detail, especially the rationale for the suggested managements. The echocardiography part of the answer often lacked details of imaging findings, and once again outlined pathophysiology, which had already been answered.

Discussion

This answer would work better as a table:

Systolic heart failure  Diastolic heart failure
Pathophysiology
  • Impaired  LV contractility because of intrinsic myocyte dysfunction or LV muscle tissue loss
  • Thus, decreased reactivity to increased demand
  • Impaired myocardial relaxation, increased myocardial wall stiffness, extrinsic compression (eg. pericardial), acute chamber dilatation or suddenly increased afterload
  • Thus, increased left ventricular elastance (decreased compliance) and impaired diastolic relaxation
  • Thus, raised LV end-diastolic pressure
  • Thus, LA dilatation and increased PV pressure, leading to pulmonary oedema
  • Worse in the presence of tachycardia (inadequate diastolic filling time) and hypertension (increased end-systolic LV pressure)
Echocardiography features
  • LV dilatation
  • Reduced LV ejection fraction
  • Reduced LVOT VTI
  • Reduced peak systolic strain
  • Reduced fractional LV shortening
  • Reduced mitral anterior plane systolic excursion
  • Tissue Doppler imaging (TDI) and speckle tracking
  • LV hypertrophy
  • LA enlargement
  • Mitral E and A 
  • Increased mitral inflow E/A ratio 
    (for grade II-IV dysfunction)
  • Loss of E/A reversal with the Valsalva maneuver.
  • Pulsed-wave TDI-derived mitral annular early diastolic velocity
Likely aetiologies
  • Ischaemia
  • Myocarditis (infectious or autoimmune)
  • Toxins (eg. negative inotropes)
  • Post-bypass stunning
  • Hypothermia
  • Endocrine causes (eg. hypoadrenalism, hypothyroidism)
  • Metabolic causes (eg. acidosis)
  • Ischaemia
  • Hypertrophy 2n to hypertension
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • Mitral stenosis
  • Infiltrative disease:
    • Amyloidosis
    • Sarcoidosis
    • Lymphoma
Management
  • Afterload reduction is essential (arterial vasodilators)
  • Preload reduction is helpful (diuretics)
  • Contractility augmentation (inotropes, IABP)
  •  
  • Preload reduction is essential (diuretics)
  • Afterload reduction is helpful (arterial vasodilators)
  • Heart rate reduction (beta blockers and calcium channel blockers)
  • Maintenance of sinus rhythm (prevention of AF)

Echo features were derived from the ASE guidelines for comprehensive TEE in adults and for assessment of diastolic dysfunction.

References

Klaeboe, Lars Gunnar, and Thor Edvardsen. "Echocardiographic assessment of left ventricular systolic function." Journal of echocardiography 17 (2019): 10-16.
Zerbib, Yoann, Julien Maizel, and Michel Slama. "Echocardiographic assessment of left ventricular function." (2019): 2019.
Pirracchio, Romain, et al. "Diastolic heart failure in anaesthesia and critical care." British Journal of Anaesthesia98.6 (2007): 707-721.
Gori, Mauro, Attilio Iacovoni, and Michele Senni. "Haemodynamics of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction: a clinical perspective." Cardiac failure review 2.2 (2016): 102.

Question 1 - 2023, Paper 1

Discuss the assessment and initial management (first hour) of an intubated patient admitted to the ICU with cardiogenic shock, after percutaneous coronary intervention for acute coronary syndrome due to a proximal LAD lesion.

Your answer should include but not be limited to the following headings: potential likely causes, suggested diagnostic approach, key elements of the management of likely causes.
(100% marks)

College answer

Aim: To allow the candidate to demonstrate familiarity with initial ICU management of cardiogenic shock.

Key sources include: Paper 2019.1 Q1, CanMEDS Medical Expert.

Discussion: This is an exploration of cardiogenic shock post ACS. This SAQ is a repeat, almost identical in content to the 2019 SAQ.

Candidates did well if they addressed the aspects asked in the question and answers focused specifically on the details given.

The expert answer detailed the most likely and relevant causes of shock post PCI for an LAD lesion, with management in the first hour specifically addressing these causes. Elements of management contained in the expert pass include but are not limited to the following:

  • Resuscitation details including suggested vasoactive therapies with rationale,
  • Therapies targeting impaired left ventricular function including potential mechanical support,
  • Strategies to rule in/rule out the underlying causes, for example tamponade and other confounders such as electrical, valvular and stent complications.

Candidates are advised to place themselves in the clinical context outlined and describe what they would do, and this would improve their answers.

Candidates who were generic in their answers and who ignored the clinical stem did less well. For example, many candidates answered with a broad differential of all types of shock. Distributive and neurogenic shock is far less likely in the scenario given. The role of PEEP in cardiogenic shock was generally poorly explained and understood. Answers discussing the assessment and initial management should contain elements of prioritization. For example, a bullet point discussion on balloon pumps and the role of emergency CABG would gain more marks than noting the placement of central access and an arterial line.

Discussion

As the college has pointed out, this SAQ is very close in content to Question 1 from the first paper of 2019. In this case the SAQ design and the examiners' comments were a marked improvement; for example the previous SAQ needed the trainees to discuss cardiogenic shock but did not explicitly state this, so even though cardiogenic shock was obviously their expectation, the question approached it so obliquely that it ended up looking like a generic SAQ about the complications of angiography.

This time the examiners were more direct. The SAQ  also gave an expected structure. The patient had an LAD lesion and so right heart stuff is deprioritised in the model answer below, in the interest of saving space:

Potential likely causes of cardiogenic shock in this scenario:

  • Complications of the procedure
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Coronary artery dissection or perforation
    • Aortic injury
    • Acute aortic or mitral regurgitation
    • Stent thrombosis
  • Complications of the underlying disease
    • Cardiogenic shock due to ischaemia
    • Brady or tachyarrhythmia
    • Severe metabolic acidosis producing low contractility
  • Complications of the anaesthetic
    • Cardiodepressant effect of general anaesthetics
    • Local anaesthetic toxicity
  • Unrelated catastrophic event
    • Pulmonary embolism

Suggested diagnostic approach: 

  • Rule out specific reversible causes:
      • ECG to rule out arrhythmia/ischaemia
      • TTE (or ideally TOE) to
        • assess cardiac systolic function and guide inotrope therapy
        • rule out acute valve pathology
        • rule out tamponade
        • observe new regional wall motion abnormalities
        • determine chamber filling and guide volume resuscitation
      • Repeat angiography to rule out stent misbehaviour (eg thrombosis)

    Key elements of the management of likely causes:

    • Definitive therapies to reverse specific pathologies:
      • Repeat angiography and thrombus aspiration
      • Emergency CABG or emergency valve surgery
      • Pericardiocentesis to correct cardiac tamponade
    • Medical cardiovascular support
      • Rate:
        •  Aim for stable HR 80-100, unless severe diastolic dysfunction is present
        • Chronotropic agents with inotropic effects (eg. dobutamine) would be ideal here
      • Rhythm:
      • Preload:
        • Crystalloid bolus, aiming at a restoration of circulating volume, guided by TTE/TOE
      • Afterload:
        • Noradrenaline to produce sufficient systemic vascular resistance to elevate the diastolic pressure and improve coronary perfusion
      • Contractility:
        • Dobutamine to improve LV contractility
        • Other agents (eg. milrinone, levosimendan) have less evidence in support of them
    • Mechanical cardiovascular support options
      • PEEP to decrease afterload and improve LV transmural pressure gradient
      • IABP to improve coronary diastolic perfusion
      • VA ECMO as a bridge to cardiac recovery

    References

    Question 11 - 2023, Paper 1

    Question 11    
    a.    Define systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve.    (20% marks)
    b.    List the risk factors for SAM?    (30% marks)

    c. Outline specific management of SAM causing hemodynamic instability, post cardiac surgery. (50% marks)
     

    College answer

    Aim: To explore the issues in cardiac anatomy leading to haemodynamic instability with a particular focus on post cardiac surgery in part c.
    Key sources include: Related question regarding dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in paper 2019.1 Q8. CanMEDS Medical Expert.
    Discussion: Some candidates did very well, demonstrating an in-depth knowledge of the pathophysiology of SAM and dynamic LV outflow tract obstruction.
    Understanding the pathophysiology is key to outlining the specific management. Expert pass answers outlined specific management of the unstable post cardiac surgery patient in detail and showed an understanding of the pathophysiology. These approaches gained more marks than answers which were superficial and contained generic statements. Examples of the expert pass specific management answers included the following:

    • Outlining methods of rate control and its subsequent effect on reducing or worsening LVOT obstruction.
    • A potential requirement for return to theatre in the post operative valve replacement (most common in the post operative AVR) demonstrating an understanding of the mechanics of obstructive shock in this context and requirement for definite treatment.

    Discussion

    Question 8 from the first paper of 2019 asked mostly about LVOT obstruction in a generic sense, where SAM was only one of the possible causes.

    a)

    SAM is the displacement of the distal portion of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve toward the left ventricular outflow tract. 

    This was a 20% SAQ fragment, and so probably more than just this brief definition was expected. One could expand on it by including some echocardiographic criteria:

    • Grade 1 – AML buckling towards LVOT 10 mm away from septum
    • Grade 2 - AML buckling towards LVOT within 10 mm  from septum
    • Grade 3 - AML buckling and touching septum but less than 30% of systole
    • Grade 4 - AML buckling and touching septum but more than 30% of systole

    Additionally, severity can be assessed by measuring the pressure gradient along the LVOT, where moderate SAM has a maximum pressure gradient of 20 -50 mmHg,  and severe is higher.

    b)

    Risk factors include:

    • Redundant anterior leaflet
    • Redundant posterior leaflet
    • Papillary muscle displacement 
    • Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
    • Anatomical anomaly of the chordae
    • Small LV chamber volume (for example, due to hypovolemia)
    • Increased LV contractility (for example, due to stress or inotropes)
    • Undersized mitral annulus
    • Anterior displacement of the mitral valve (congenitally, surgically or by disease)
    • Low anterior-posterior length ratio of the valve (i.e. ovoid valve)

    c)

    Specific management of LVOT obstruction in general also covers the management of SAM, and would be something like this:

    • Preload: keep it high-normal. 
    • Rate: keep it slow. 
    • Rhythm: keep it sinus. 
    • Contractility: bring it down. Negative inotropes are often called for, eg. beta-blockers
    • Afterload: keep it high. Use vasopressors with minimal beta effect (eg. vasopressin or phenylephrine)
    • Fix the valve or open out the outflow tract: the patient may need to return to theatre.
    • Reduce stressors that would ordinarily increase cardiac contractility: this means, for example, not extubating the patient while waiting for SAM-corrective surgery, and using generous analgesia.

    References

    Vilcant, Viliane, and Ofek Hai. "Left Ventricular Outflow Tract Obstruction." StatPearls [Internet]. StatPearls Publishing, 2018.

    Slama, Michel, Christophe Tribouilloy, and Julien Maizel. "Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in ICU patients." Current opinion in critical care 22.3 (2016): 260-266.

    Gilbert, Brian W., et al. "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: subclassification by M mode echocardiography." The American Journal of Cardiology 45.4 (1980): 861-872.

    Luckie, M., and R. S. Khattar. "Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve—beyond hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." Heart 94.11 (2008): 1383-1385.

    Raut, Monish, Arun Maheshwari, and Baryon Swain. "Awareness of ‘systolic anterior motion’in different conditions." Clinical Medicine Insights: Cardiology 12 (2018): 1179546817751921.

    Manabe, Susumu, et al. "Management of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve: a mechanism-based approach." General thoracic and cardiovascular surgery 66 (2018): 379-389.

    Question 15.1 - 2023, Paper 1

    15.1.    A 65-year-old patient presents to the ED with persisting chest pain for one week. Following an acute severe episode that lasted for two hours. The 12 lead ECG taken on presentation is shown.

    a.    Explain the ECG changes.    (10% marks)

    b.    List the most likely diagnosis.    (5% marks)


    The patient develops worsening chest pain and becomes more tachypnoeic and hypotensive. List three likely causes for this deterioration.    (15% marks)
     

    College answer

    Aim: To allow the candidate to demonstrate expertise in the analysis of ECGs.

    Key sources include: This is a repeat question from paper 2014.1 Q18. CanMEDS Medical Expert.

    Discussion:

    15.1    - The candidates who did well considered the clinical history provided, and correctly interpreted the ECG (e.g., did not confuse LBBB with RBBB).

    Discussion

    a)

    This SAQ was a repeat of Question 18.1 from the first paper of 2014, and so the image and interpretation was also a repeat. The ECG above has been stolen shamelessly from Dr Smith's ECG Blog, where it is discussed in glorious detail. Obviously, one would find it difficult to reproduce the exact ECG which the college had in their paper, as it contained the following abnormalities:

    • Atrial fibrillation with a controlled ventricular response
    • Right Bundle Branch Block
    • Q-waves V1- V5 and which are wide
    • Left axis deviation
    • ST elevation anterior and inferior
    • ST depression in aVL

    The one I have stolen is interpreted by Dr Smith in the following fashion:

    There is RBBB, but without the usual rSR' in right precordial leads.  [There is some left axis deviation as well, probably a left anterior fascicular (hemi-) block.]  The initial r-wave is gone, so that there are QR-waves (diagnostic of myocardial infarction, whether old or acute).  There is ST elevation (which is never normal in RBBB).  The negative T-wave makes it very unlikely that this acute MI, but it could be either subacute or old. 

    The rest of the old college answer (back when they gave you the answers) looked like this:

    b)

    •  Recent transmural anterior MI with resulting ventricular aneurysm

    c)

    • Aneurysm rupture
    • Septal rupture causing a VSD
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Papillary muscle rupture
    • Re-infarction

     (Pulmonary embolus)

    References

    Question 15.2 - 2023, Paper 1

    A 45-year-old patient has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of syncope. A MET call is made for another syncopal episode. The 12 lead ECG is shown.

    a.    Explain the ECG changes.    (10%marks)

    b.    List the most likely diagnosis.    (10% marks)

    c.    Explain the underlying pathophysiology.    (10% marks)

    d.    List four clinical situations that can worsen this condition.    (20% marks)

    College answer

    Aim: To allow the candidate to demonstrate expertise in the analysis of ECGs.

    Key sources include: This is a repeat question from paper 2014.1 Q18. CanMEDS Medical Expert.

    Discussion:

    15.2    - Brugada syndrome was not identified and was misdiagnosed on the ECG in many cases.

    Discussion

    This SAQ was a repeat of Question 18.2 from the first paper of 2014, and so the image and interpretation were also a repeat. From that past SAQ, the following "college model answer" could be obtained:

    a)

    • Coved ST segment elevation V1 – V2 > 2 mm.
    • Subsequent negative T wave in the same leads.

    b)

    • Brugada syndrome (Type 1).

    c)

    • A mutation in the cardiac sodium channel gene.

    d)

    • Fever.
    • Myocardial ischaemia.
    • Medications E.g. Flecainide, Amitriptyline, Lithium, Bupivacaine, Propofol, Alcohol.
    • Hypokalaemia.
    • Hypothermia.
    • Cardioversion.

    The criteria for the diagnosis of Brugada syndrome as well as  are explored to a fascinating depth by Edward Burns in his article for LITFL. The time-poor exam candidate will be interested in only the answers to this question:

    Clinical criteria:

    • Characteristic ECG changes
      • "Coved" ST elevation:  the QRS complex finishes high, and the ST-segment slopes diagonally to form an inverted T-wave in V1 and V2
      • Inverted T waves
    • Also, one of the following:
      • documented polymorphic VT or VF
      • Family history of sudden cardiac death before the age of 45
      • Characteristic ECG changes in family members
      • Syncope
      • Induceable VT
      • Nocturnal agonal respiration

    Clinical situations which can worsen this condition:

    • Ischameia
    • Hyperthermia or hypothermia
    • Hypokalemia
    • Cardioversion
    • Drugs:
      • Class 1 antiarrhythmics
      • Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
      • Alpha-agonists
      • Nitrates
      • Cocaine and alcohol
      • Cholinergic agonists, eg. the "stigmine" drugs

    References

    Berne, Paola, and Josep Brugada. "Brugada syndrome 2012." Circulation Journal 76.7 (2012): 1563-1571.

    Question 15.3 - 2023, Paper 1

    15.3.    A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the ICU with community acquired pneumonia suddenly develops tachycardia. The 12 lead ECG is shown below.
     

    a.    Explain the ECG and provide the diagnosis.    (10% marks)

    b.    List two co-existing diseases in critically ill patients where this condition is commonly seen.
    (10% marks)

    College answer

    Aim: To allow the candidate to demonstrate expertise in the analysis of ECGs.

    Key sources include: This is a repeat question from paper 2014.1 Q18. CanMEDS Medical Expert.

    Discussion:

    15.3    - Recognition of multifocal atrial tachycardia was poor.

    Discussion

    a)

    This SAQ was a repeat of Question 18.3 from the first paper of 2014, and so the image and interpretation were also a repeat. The last time, the college gave this as a model answer:

    a)

    • Multifocal atrial tachycardia
    • Irregularly irregular rhythm rate > 100 bpm
    • Multiple P wave morphologies

    b)

    • COPD
    • Congestive cardiac failure

    The above-displayed ECG comes from the LITFL page on multifocal atrial tachycardia.

    The cardinal features are irregularity and a plethora of different P-wave morphologies.

    You need to have

    • Tachycardia (HR >100)
    • Irregular rate
    • Variability in P wave morphology

    The same findings with a normal heart rate does not qualify for MAT, because it's not tachycardia; you have to call that a "wandering atrial pacemaker".

    The CICM question also asked for associated diseases.  In adults, MAT is almost uniformly associated with COPD. Not only are the atria stretched by pulmonary hypertension, but the proarrhythmic bronchodilators also make for an irritable myocardium.  In the paediatric population the differentials are more broad, including bronchiolitis, croup, bronchomalacia, etc.

    References

    Bradley, David J. "Multifocal atrial tachycardia." DEVELOPMENTS IN CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICINE 257 (2006): 135.

    LiPSON, MANUEL J., and SHAPUR NAIMI. "Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (Chaotic Atrial Tachycardia) Clinical Associations and Significance." Circulation 42.3 (1970): 397-407.

    Question 23 - 2023, Paper 1

    You are asked to review a 75-year-old man who has developed sudden onset hypotension, with a systolic BP of 70mmHg and an associated sinus tachycardia of 140 bpm, 30 minutes post TAVR (transcatheter aortic valve replacement) via the trans-femoral approach.
    a) List four cardiac differential diagnoses of hypotension. (20% marks)
    b) List four non-cardiac differential diagnoses of hypotension. (20% marks)
    c) Explain which features on history, clinical examination, and investigations, may help differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes? (60% marks)

    College answer

    Aim: To explore the complications of a common cardiology procedure.
    Key sources include: Common cardiology procedure seen in clinical practice. CanMEDS Medical Expert.
    Discussion: This topic was generally well addressed by candidates with the non-cardiac causes of hypotension e.g., femoral access retroperitoneal bleed or anaphylaxis, well recognised. Candidates would have improved their answers if they gave cardiac differentials specific to the clinical case provided outlining post-TAVR instability. For example, a discussion around severe AR/paravalvular leak from TAVR malposition or ventricular perforation/aortic root rupture related tamponade would have allowed the candidate to demonstrate competency with the assessment of the post TAVR unstable patient and improve their answer in part a and c.

    Discussion

    a)

    • Aortic annular rupture or aortic root rupture 
    • Paravalvular aortic regurgitation
    • Displacement of the TAVI device
    • Iatrogenic ventricular septal defect
    • Fistula from the left ventricle to the atria (iatrogenic Gerbode defect)
    • Perforation of the anterior mitral valve curtain
    • Acute coronary artery occlusion
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • LV outflow tract obstruction ("left ventricular suicide")
    • You'd also usually list an arrhythmia if there wasn't a clear stem statement to the effect of "sinus tachycardia of 140 bpm"

    b)

    • Retroperitoneal bleed from the femoral access
    • Cardiotoxic effects of anaesthetic agents
    • Sepsis due to undeclared perioperative infection
    • Bowel ischaemia due to atheromatous emboli
    • Anaphylaxis
    • Post-TAVR autodiuresis

    c) 

    • History,  to look for
      • Anaphylaxis (allergy list and medication chart)
      • Drug error ("did you seriously give 100mg IV metoprolol")
      • Procedural complications
    • Physical examination looking for:
      • Conduction disturbance
        • Pulse rate
        • Arrhythmia 
      • Aortic pathology
        • Radioradial and radiofemoral delay
        • Murmur
      • Tamponade
        • Pulse pressure variation, pulsus paradoxus
        • CVP trend
        • Neck veins (distended?)
        • Heart sounds (muffled?)
      • Bleeding
        • Pallor
        • Abdominal distension
        • Brusing or swelling of the arterial puncture sites
        • Pulses in the distal limbs (occluded by haematoma?)
    • Bedside tests 
      • ​​​​​​​ECG, looking for arrhythmias ischaemic  changes and conduction blocks 
      • TTE/TOE, looking for paravalvular leak and other cardiac/valvular injury, and of course for effusion and tamponade
      • TOE can also assess for aortic dissection in a limited way
    • Biochemistry
      • ABG, to immediately assess lactate and haemoglobin (as well as any electrolyte abnormalities that might be contributing to a conduction disturbance or arrrhythmia)
      • FBC, in case 
      • ACT or TEG to find any coagulopathy (beyond the usual effects of heparin)
    • Imaging
      • CXR looking for mediastinal widening and TAVR device embolisation
      • CT aortogram and CT abdomen, to exclude aortic dissection and retroperitoneal haematoma
      • Angiography in cath lab (an on-table aortogram can also be performed, and 

    References

    Agnihotri, Arvind. "2012 ACCF/AATS/SCAI/STS expert consensus document on transcatheter aortic valve replacement: Executive summary." The Journal of Thoracic and Cardiovascular Surgery 144.3 (2012): 534-537.

    Raiten, Jesse M., et al. "Critical care management of patients following transcatheter aortic valve replacement." F1000Research 2 (2013).

    Clegg, Stacey D., and Mori J. Krantz. "Transcatheter aortic valve replacement: what's in a name?." Journal of the American College of Cardiology 60.3 (2012): 239-239.

    Thiele, Holger, et al. "General versus local anesthesia with conscious sedation in transcatheter aortic valve implantation: the randomized SOLVE-TAVI trial." Circulation 142.15 (2020): 1437-1447.

    Klinkhammer, Brent J., Cornelius M. Dyke, and Thomas A. Haldis. "The development or worsening of hypertension after transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) improves short-term and long-term patient outcomes." Heart Asia 10.2 (2018).

    Lindman, Brian R., et al. "Lower blood pressure after transcatheter or surgical aortic valve replacement is associated with increased mortality." Journal of the American Heart Association 8.21 (2019): e014020.

    Tomey, Matthew I., Umesh K. Gidwani, and Samin K. Sharma. "Cardiac critical care after transcatheter aortic valve replacement." Cardiology Clinics 31.4 (2013): 607-618.

    Suh, William M., Christian F. Witzke, and Igor F. Palacios. "Suicide left ventricle following transcatheter aortic valve implantation." Catheterization and Cardiovascular Interventions 76.4 (2010): 616-620.

    Question 2 - 2023, Paper 2

    Outline the approach to neurological prognostication of a patient post out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OOHCA). Your answer should include the following headings:
    a) General principles.    (2 marks)
    b) Clinical factors.    (2.5 marks)
    c)  Imaging.    (2.5 marks)
    d) Neurophysiological studies.    (2 marks)
    e) Biomarkers.    (1 mark)

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4    Cardiovascular Intensive Care – L1.

    Aim:

    To demonstrate knowledge of neuro-prognostication post OOHCA.

    Discussion:

    A detailed understanding of neuro prognostication is a core competency for Intensivists. Given its frequency in the examination process a high standard of detail was required. Good candidates outlined appropriate timing of multimodal assessment with reference to common confounding factors and clinical evaluation (specifically motor score, pupillary light and corneal reflexes, other brainstem reflexes and myoclonus), specifying utility in neuro prognostication.
    Discussion of imaging (CT and MRI), Neurophysiological studies (EEG, SSEPs) and biomarkers (NSE) with exploration of expected findings and utility was expected. Reference to evidence and existing guidelines was limited in many answers. Several publications provide guidance to this complex area (e.g. ERC/ESICM). The application of neurophysiological testing and biomarkers was generally explored only superficially by many candidates who would benefit from clinical exposure or further reading in this area.
    Candidates did less well if they:

    1.    Misunderstood the question and focused on brain death testing.
    2.    Provided generic answers.

    For example, a motor score of < 3 is a marker of severity, however context is crucial to accurately assess the utility of the motor score. Outlining the time frame, the setting of clinical findings and the potential confounders would give more depth of knowledge to the answer, provide necessary context and allow the candidate to demonstrate competency.

    Discussion

    The 2023 NCS "Guidelines for Neuroprognostication in Comatose Adult Survivors of Cardiac Arrest" came out in March 2023, which means it is possible that the SAQ-writers used the newest version of the guidelines, but as the changes were subtle, it should not have mattered.

    • General principles of neuroprognostication following cardiac arrest:
      • Multimodal assessment: use several techniques concurrently to help form an opinion
      • Timing: not before 24 hours; ideally at 72-120 hours
      • Clinical features are especially susceptible to time context, i.e. need to exclude the effects of sedation and hypothermia
    • Clinical features associated with a poor outcome:
      • History: 
        • Initial rhythm (PEA or asystole)
        • unwitnessed
        • delayed CPR
        • CPR for longer than 20 minutes
      • Examination:
        • Unreactive pupils
        • Absent corneal reflex 
        • Status myoclonus
        • GCS motor score < 3
      • High false positive rate with clinical examination alone
      • Confounded by sedation and cooling
    • Imaging findings associated with a poor outcome:
      • CT: loss of grey-white differentiation (inversed gray/white matter ratio in Hounsfield units)
        • Early (<24hr) CT may fail to demonstrate these findings; poor negative predictive value (i.e. a normal CT does not rule out a bad outcome)
      • MRI: early increased signal intensity on DWI and diffusion restriction on ADC
        •  Good positive and negative predictive value at days 2-7
    • Neurophysiological studies associated with a poor outcome:
      • EEG: Absence of reactivity, burst suppression, suppressed background, or status epilepticus within the first 72 hrs
        • False positive rate 0-7%
      • SSEP: absence of the N20 component with median nerve stimulation
        • Very low false positive rate (close to 0%) even in cooled patients
    • Biomarkers associated with a poor outcome:
      • NSE over 33μg/L at 1-3 days post CPR
        • No uniformly accepted threshold 
      • S100 calcium-binding protein B
        • Remains largely experimental

    References

    Question 8 - 2023, Paper 2

    A 59-year-old patient with a known history of ischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy (ejection fraction (EF) 25%), with an automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) in situ, has presented to the Emergency Department as the AICD has appropriately delivered 15 shocks in the past 4 hrs. ECG shows sinus rhythm with pre-existing left bundle branch block (LBBB).

    The patient is cooperative with a GCS of 15 but distressed by the repetitive shocks.

    The airway is maintained. Blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, heart rate is 105/minute, sinus rhythm. Peripheral oxygen saturations are 96% on room air.
    Outline your management of this patient.

    College Answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4    Cardiovascular Intensive Care – L1.

    Aim:
    Assess a candidate’s knowledge of AICD and management of VT storm.
    Discussion:
    Candidates scored marks if they mentioned accurate patient risk stratification and appropriate management according to hemodynamic tolerability e.g. Patient is GCS 15 - organ perfusion maintained- categorized as stable VT.
    Higher marks were achieved if the answer Included – ruling out all potentially reversible causes, administering anti-arrhythmic drugs in staged sequence and then considered general anesthesia (to reduce the sympathetic surge) and mechanical hemodynamic support (as EF 25%- Poor LVEF) as a rescue therapy prior to proceeding to Radiofrequency ablation (definitive therapy).

    Candidates scored poorly if focus concentrated on a malfunctioning AICD as the stem specified that the shocks delivered were appropriate. Candidates did not score marks for elaborating on assessment when management (resuscitation, definitive treatment, initial and ongoing monitoring with supportive treatment) had been specifically asked.

    Suggested strategies for improvement:

    •    Read the SAQ carefully (e.g. the AICD was functioning).
    •    Provide a tiered strategy for Mx of refractory VT.
    •    Use the glossary of terms to understand the direction of the question.
    •    Have practiced an approach of thinking both long term as well as short term.
     

    Discussion

    The "outline your management" part of the question may have confused some of the candidates, who may not have included assessment elements in their answer (such as ruling out reversible causes). Similarly, the question stem has given several data points that help you decide whether the patient is stable or unstable (i.e. we know the patient is conscious and has a perfusing rhythm), which would have made it difficult to identify the need to restate these in the answer as a "risk stratification" statement. 

    Still, if this is what they wanted,

    • Risk stratification
      • The patient is hypotensive, but there is no evidence of organ hypoperfusion
      • This suggests definitive management can be delayed until the patient is stabilised in the ICU
        • Alternative would have been to go to cath lab for RF ablation on VA ECMO
    • Assessment for reversible causes
      • Biochemistry, including ABG (to exclude electrolyte derangement and acidosis)
      • ECG (evidence of ischaemia)
      • TTE (regional wall motion abnormalities)
    • Tiered management of VT
      • Antiarrhythmics
        • Amiodarone loading dose (5-7mg/kg) followed by infusion
        • Can add lignocaine infusion as second dier
        • Mexelitine and phenytoin are third and fourth line agents
        • When haemodynamically improved, beta-blockade
      • Supportive management
        • Keep sodium ~145 mmol/L using sodium bicarbonate
        • Keep magnesium 1.5-2.0 mmol/L
        • Sedate/anaesthetise the patient to reduce sympathetic drive
        • Use a ring magnet to prevent further shocks while antiarrhythmics are being given
    • Refractory VT with cardiogenic shock
      • While waiting for mechanical circulatory support:
        • Inotropes, acknowledging the risk of worsening the arrhythmia
        • Overdrive pacing using transvenous pacing wires or the AICD itself (at 110-120 bpm)
        • Stellate ganglion block or similar sympatholytic technique
      • Mechanical support (IABP or preferably VA ECMO)
    • Definitive management
      • Radiofrequency ablation
      • Revascularisation of ischaemic regions
      • Return to ICU on mechanical cardiovascular support

    References

    Aronow, Wilbert S. "Treatment of Ventricular Arrhythmias." (2014).

    Stevens, S., et al. "When Shocking The Electrical Storm Does Not Work..." Am J Respir Crit Care Med 189 (2014): A6153.

    Tung, Roderick, and Kalyanam Shivkumar. "Neuraxial modulation for treatment of VT storm." Journal of biomedical research 29.1 (2015): 56.

    Scheinman, Melvin M., et al. "Dose-ranging study of intravenous amiodarone in patients with life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias." Circulation 92.11 (1995): 3264-3272.

    Kowey, Peter R. "An overview of antiarrhythmic drug management of electrical storm." The Canadian journal of cardiology 12 (1996): 3B-8B.

    Gorenek, Bulent, et al. "Cardiac arrhythmias in acute coronary syndromes: position paper from the joint EHRA, ACCA, and EAPCI task force." Europace (2014): euu208.

    Kurisu, Satoshi, et al. "Temporary overdriving pacing as an adjunct to antiarrhythmic drug therapy for electrical storm in acute myocardial infarction." Circulation Journal 69.5 (2005): 613-616.

    Patel, Rishin A., et al. "Left Stellate Ganglion Blockade for the Management of Drug‐Resistant Electrical Storm." Pain medicine 12.8 (2011): 1196-1198.

    Nademanee, Koonlawee, et al. "Treating Electrical Storm Sympathetic Blockade Versus Advanced Cardiac Life Support–Guided Therapy." Circulation 102.7 (2000): 742-747.

    BELLA, PAOLO DELLA, and Stefania Riva. "Hybrid therapies for ventricular arrhythmias." Pacing and clinical electrophysiology 29.s2 (2006): S40-S47.

    Question 13 - 2024, Paper 1

    a) Explain the medical management of a patient with a confirmed Type B aortic dissection.
    (6 marks)


    b) List the indications for consideration of surgical management of this condition.
    (4 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4. Cardiovascular Intensive Care / Aortic aneurysm and dissection: L1

    Discussion:  

    This question focused on the medical management of Type B Aortic dissection. Candidates were therefore expected to provide a detailed and clear rationale of therapies rather than broad generic resuscitation answers. Haemodynamic plans often lacked a clear stepwise approach and rationale for their therapies. A good answer required recognition of important management principles beyond purely pharmacological hemodynamic management such as disposition, involvement of other teams (Interventional Radiology/surgery), type of vascular access and a structured approach to monitoring for complications of dissection involving multiple relevant organs/organ systems.
    For part B, most candidates recognised 2-3 clinical reasons for escalation to surgical management. The better candidate was able to mention both clinical and radiological indications.

    Discussion

    Note the vocabulary choice: "Explain" is a very different beast to "Outline" or "Discuss" and requires the demonstration of the understanding of the rationale and theory behind what is being done. Thus: 

    a) Medical management:

    • Overall management goals:
      • Decrease aortic wall stress 
      • Thus:
        • reduce the risk of rupture
        • Decrease the risk of propagation of the dissection flap
        • Maintain the perfusion of compromised organs
    • Haemodynamic objectives which serve these goals: 
      • Decrease cardiac contractility (dP/dT) 
      • Decrease blood pressure
      • Decrease heart rate
      • All of this reduces the kinetic energy of the ejected blood, which is what dissects the flap
    • Options to achieve these goals:
      • Labetalol infusion (15mg bolus, then 5mg/hr)
        • Infusion initially because easy to transition to oral dosing later
        • A good agent choice because it also has alpha blocking properties
      • Alternatively, esmolol, verapamil, diltiazem
      • Once contractility and rate control is achieved,
        vasodilators can also be used (nitroprusside, clevidipine, etc)
      • Analgesia +/- sedation to decrease sympathetic output
    • Endpoints of therapy:
      • Systolic blood pressure <110 mmHg
      • HR < 70
      • Improved surrogate measures of organ perfusion 
    • Monitoring 
      • Right radial arterial line: dissection flap may influence the left arm pressures; also the subclavian on the left may be clamped if surgical repair is required
      • Serial lactates to observe gut and limb perfusion
      • Serial neurovascular leg obs to watch for acute limb ischaemia
      • Urine colour/.quantity monitoring and serial EUCs LFTs and FBCs to watch for haemolysis and renal function
    • Analgesia
      • Analgesia is essential - pain and distress are potent triggers for hypertensive episodes
      • Use opioids plus clonidine and dexmedetomidine as co-analgesics to reduce total opioid dose

    Clinical indications for surgery: "complicated" type B dissection:

    • Features suggesting instability:
      • Refractory hypertension
    • Ischaemia:
      • Visceral and renal ischaemia
      • Lower extremities ischaemia
      • Spinal cord ischaemia
    • Malperfusion:
      • Paraparesis or paraplegia
      • Abdominal pain, nausea, or diarrhea
      • Renal failure or LFT derangement

    Radiological indications for surgery:

    • "uncomplicated", but who have a large false lumen, or a large aorta in general (more than 4cm).
    • Transformation to Type A
    • Aortic total diameter of > 4.5 cm
    • Extension of dissection on repeat imaging
    • Aortic rupture

    References

    Question 15.1 - 2024, Paper 1

    70-year-old patient with exercise intolerance

    Interpret the ECG. (1 mark)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care /Interpretation of the electrocardiogram: L1

    Discussion:  

    Overall answered well. Candidates are encouraged to practice interpreting ECGs of common or potentially life-threatening conditions where ECGs are key to diagnosis.

    Discussion

    No discussion is necessary here (this is complete heart block). It is, however, interesting that the stem contains the information that this was a 70 yo patient with symptoms, as the effect of knowing this would not have helped the exam candidate to recognise complete heart block, nor was it used later to test any further knowledge.

    References

    Question 15.2 - 2024, Paper 1

    a) Interpret the ECG. (0.5 marks)
    b) List five diagnoses which would cause the findings on this ECG. (2.5 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care /Interpretation of the electrocardiogram: L1

    Discussion:  

    Overall answered well. Candidates are encouraged to practice interpreting ECGs of common or potentially life-threatening conditions where ECGs are key to diagnosis.

    Discussion

    No discussion is necessary for the interpretation here (this is a spot diagnosis - the QT interval is massively prolonged, even just measured with the unaided eyeball). This brainstem response was awarded only a half mark, which is probably fair. The causes of QT prolongation are rather numerous and it would not be practical to list all possible answers, but here is a good range of options from 

    Harrigan & Chan (2009):

    Non-drug-related causes

    • Hypokalemia
    • Hypocalcemia
    • Hypomagnesemia
    • Hypothermia
    • Thiamine deficiency
    • Cardiac ischaemia
    • Congenital long QT syndrome

    Additionally, one could list any of the approximately one million drugs that cause QT prolongation (see www.qtdrugs.org):

    • Cardiac agents
      • Anti-arrhythmics (Type Ia, Ic, and III)
      • Calcium channel-blockers (some) (e.g. bepridil, isradipine, nicardipine)
    • Anti-psychotic agents
      • Phenothiazines (some) (e.g. thioridazine, mesoridazine)
      • Butyrophenones (e.g. haloperidol, droperidol)
    • Anti-depressants (some) (e.g. tricyclics, fluoxetine, sertraline, venlaflaxine)
    • Anti-infective agents
    • Fluoroquinolones (some) (e.g. sparfloxacin, gatifloxacin, moxifloxicin)
    • Macrolides (some) (e.g. erythromycin, clarithromycin)
    • Miscellaneous (pentamidine, amantadine, tetracyclines, foscarnet, quinine, chloroquine)
    • Neurologic agents
      • Carbamazepine, fosphenytoin, sumatriptan, zolmitriptan, naratriptan
    • Organophosphates
    • Gastrointestinal agents (e.g. cisapride, ipecac, octreotide, dolasetron)
    • Other (e.g. cocaine, diphenhydramine, methadone, tacrolimus, tamoxifen, probucol, tizanidine, salmeterol)

    References

    Harrigan, Richard A., and Theodore C. Chan. "| What is the ECG differential diagnosis of a prolonged QT interval?." Critical Decisions in Emergency and Acute Care Electrocardiography. Oxford, UK: Wiley‐Blackwell, 2009. 479-482.

    Question 15.3 - 2024, Paper 1

    A 48-year-old patient presents with breathlessness.
    List the abnormalities and give the most likely diagnosis.

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care /Interpretation of the electrocardiogram: L1

    Discussion:  

    Overall answered well. Candidates are encouraged to practice interpreting ECGs of common or potentially life-threatening conditions where ECGs are key to diagnosis.

    Discussion

    This ECG demonstrates right heart strain.

    The abnormalities, in a structure of sorts:

    • The rate and rhythm are sinus tachycardia
    • The P waves look normal
    • The PR interval looks normal
    • There is a left axis deviation
    • The QRS complexes are of a RBBB morphology. The QRS seems to be slightly prolonged, although one cannot see the littlest squares; there is a wide slurred S wave in V6, and one can convince oneself of an RSR pattern in V3. 
    • There are ST segment changes in V1-V3, which look like ST elevation and T wave inversion, and there is some T wave inversion in leads II, III and aVF. 
    • There is some of an S1 Q3 T3 pattern - the S wave is sort of deep in lead I, and the T wave is inverted in Lead III, but one cannot convince oneself of a Q wave in lead III

    One would have to say "pulmonary embolism" if one had to come up with one short punchy half-mark diagnosis. 

    References

    Daniel, Kurt R., D. Mark Courtney, and Jeffrey A. Kline. "Assessment of cardiac stress from massive pulmonary embolism with 12-lead ECG." Chest 120.2 (2001): 474-481.

    Levis, Joel T. "ECG diagnosis: Pulmonary embolism." The Permanente Journal 15.4 (2011): 75.

    Question 15.4 - 2024, Paper 1

    An 80-year-old patient presents with syncope.
    Interpret this ECG. (1.5 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care /Interpretation of the electrocardiogram: L1

    Discussion:  

    Overall answered well. Candidates are encouraged to practice interpreting ECGs of common or potentially life-threatening conditions where ECGs are key to diagnosis.

    Discussion

    This ECG demonstrates what used to be called "trifascicular block"

    The abnormalities, in a structure of sorts:

    • The rate and rhythm are sinus bradycardia
    • The P waves look normal
    • The PR interval is prolonged
    • There is a left axis deviation
    • The QRS complexes are of a RBBB morphology. The QRS is prolonged, there is a slurred S wave in V6, and RSR pattern in V1. The T waves are appropriately inverted in leads V1-V3.
    • There are small Q waves and tall R waves in Lead I and aVL; as well as small R waves and deep S waves in Lead II, Lead III and aVF. So, this is also a left anterior fascicle block

    References

    2012 ACCF/AHA/HRS Focused Update of the 2008 Guidelines for Device-Based Therapy of Cardiac Rhythm Abnormalities A Report of the American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines

    Question 15.5 - 2024, Paper 1

    Explain the ECG and rhythm strip. (1.5 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care /Interpretation of the electrocardiogram: L1

    Discussion:  

    Overall answered well. Candidates are encouraged to practice interpreting ECGs of common or potentially life-threatening conditions where ECGs are key to diagnosis.

    Discussion

    This ECG demonstrates polymorphic VT, and presumably  candidates who called this torsades de pointes would have been marked wrong, as the QT following the shock looks to be of a reasonably normal duration, and you need a long QT to turn polymorphic VT into torsades. 

    The arrow pointing to the shock suggests that probably the shock should have been noted in the answer, and it is the most obvious thing on the ECG after the VT. 

    The ECG that follows is more subtle, showing pacing spikes before every P and QRS, suggesting that there is a dual chamber pacemaker. Was it an AICD that fired? Who can know. There is no difference between the ECG appearance of exterior and interior shocks. However, as the rhythm strip appears to be printed on the same paper, one might surmise that these were all recorded together, which suggests that this was an AICD discharge: because it does not seem plausible that the V1-V6 electrodes would have been left on the chest, under the defibrillator pads, as the patient was given 200 joules. 

    References

    Iftikhar, Saher, Amal Mattu, and William Brady. "ED evaluation and management of implantable cardiac defibrillator electrical shocks." The American journal of emergency medicine 34.6 (2016): 1140-1147.

    Question 18 - 2024, Paper 1

    Regarding new-onset atrial fibrillation in a patient with sepsis in the ICU:
    a) List six risk factors for new-onset atrial fibrillation in the critically ill patient who has NOT had cardiac surgery. (2 marks)
    b) Discuss strategies for the reversion of rhythm and rate in new-onset atrial fibrillation in the critically ill. (8 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.3 Sepsis and Infections: L1
    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care / Cardiac arrhythmias: L1

    Discussion:  

    Candidates are reminded to read the question carefully: the question asked for a discussion of strategies for rate AND rhythm. Many candidates read the question as rate OR rhythm.
    Candidates are reminded to become familiar with the glossary of terms. “Discuss” requires a detailed articulation of the subject. Good answers had details, discussed advantages and disadvantages of each strategy, and included precise answers of non-pharmacological strategies that were not just limited to DC cardioversion. For instance, a discussion of strategies to modulate sympathetic tone such as withdrawal of beta sympathomimetic agents, e.g., cease or reducing adrenaline/ dobutamine, weaning salbutamol as able, use of analgesia and sedation, normalising CO2, aiming for euvolaemia and minimising rapid fluid shifts displayed the standard required and was rewarded.

    Discussion

    "A detailed articulation of the subject" is not something one is usually capable of in writing, as to be perfectly correct "articulation" refers either to the production of intelligible speech, or the matching connection of coursework between institutions, or the mobile connection between body segments. That notwithstanding, the "discuss" vocabulary term does mean that some advantages, disadvantages and controversies need to be opened in the answer, and there are eight marks allocated, which suggests that the level of expected detail is substantial.

    Well, at least a) is easy. Any of these would have been suitable:

    Causes of Atrial Fibrillation Organised by System

    Vascular:

    • Myocardial infarction
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Pulmonary hypertension
    • Subarachnoid haemorrhage

    Infectious:

    • Sepsis
    • Myocarditis
    • Pericarditis
    • Infective endocarditis

    Neoplastic:

    • Cardiac mass, eg. myxoma

    Drug-induced:

    • Catecholamines
    • Alcohol
    • Caffeine

    Idiopathic:

    • Infiltrative disease, eg. amyloidosis
    • Age-related fibrotic changes

    Idiopathic:

    • Infiltrative disease, eg. amyloidosis
    • Age-related fibrotic changes

    Congenitial:

    • Atrial septal defect
    • Familial AF

    Autoimmune:

    • Autoimmune myocarditis

    Traumatic:

    • Cardiac contusion
    • Cardiac surgery

    Endocrine/environmental:

    • Hypothermia
    • Hyperthyroidism
    • Haemochromatosis/iron overload
    • Phaeochromocytoma
    • Electrolyte derangement

    Now, Strategies for the reversion of rhythm and rate in new-onset atrial fibrillation in the critically ill: how would you even structure this? The usual approach would not be suitable (advantages, disadvantages, controversies) because there are a lot of options to discuss. The unprepared trainee would flounder without a scaffold. What follows hopefully helps:

    • Decision re. endpoints
      • Rhythm control is preferred where:
        • The initiating factors are well controlled
        • The patient is already sedated and ventilated (for DCCV)
        • The AF is recent in onset (<24-48 hrs)
        • The bleeding risk is high (anticogulation is contraindicated)
        • The AF is haemodynamically significant
        • The patient has no structural heart disease, eg. atrial enlargement
      • Rate control is preferred where
        • The patient has structural cardiac disease that makes sustained cardioversion unlikely
        • The stimulus for the AF remains active
        • The AF is of unknown duration and TOE is impossible or difficult
      • Rate goals are a HR of ~ 110 for most patients, or ~80 for those with decreased LV function (AHA 2023)
    • Minimise arrhythmogenic stimuli
      • Correct electrolytes (magnesium and potassium)
      • Wean the inotropes/bronchodilators or reduce the diuretics
      • Remove mechanical stimuli (eg. PA catheter, pleural effusion)
      • Reducing the sympathetic tone:
        • Address pain and agitation
        • Reversing the shock, eg. replace volume
        • Correct hypercapnia or acidosis
        • Extubate (or, reintubate) the patient.
    • Rate control options
      • Haemodynamically ​​​​​​stable patients: β-blockers and calcium channel blockers
      • Unstable patients: ​Class III antiarrhythmic agents such as​​​​​​ amiodarone vernakalant and ibutilide are the next best option, and preferred in unstable patients
      • Digoxin can be added in either scenario, but:
        • less effective where the sympathetic tone is high
        • Relies on renal clearance
    • Rhythm control options
      • Electrical cadioversion is an option for haemodynamically unstable patients 
      • In practice, often return to sinus rhythm is not sustained unless the underlying cause is addressed
      • Pharmacological cardioversion with Class III antiarrhythmics in not mutually exclusive with rate control and can be pursued concurrently as a desirable outcome of amiodarone therapy 

    References

    Question 20 - 2024, Paper 1

    Discuss the role of mechanical cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) devices (LUCAS or CORPULS). Answer under the following subheadings.

    a) The rationale for their use. (1 mark)

    b) Their advantages and disadvantages compared with conventional CPR. (5 marks)

    c) Evidence for these devices in both out of hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA) and in-hospital cardiac arrest (IHCA). (2 marks)

    d) Your clinical practice with rationale. (2 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4    Cardiovascular Intensive Care / Cardiopulmonary resuscitation: L1

    Discussion:  

    The majority of candidates were able to sensibly discuss this SAQ with a broad approach gaining the most marks. Answers which did not display the standard required failed to provide a valid rationale and detailed overview of advantages and disadvantages. Candidates are discouraged from “making up/ guessing” evidence to compensate for knowledge gaps. “Advantages” and “rationale” are two different questions and should be answered as such.
    The answer to “clinical practice with rationale” needs more than a simple statement to gain the full marks. Candidates are advised to state WHEN they would use this, for WHICH patients, commenting on relative or absolute contraindications and indications. Detailing individual variations of practice and justifying the rationale for practice change will also demonstrate a mature clinical practice to the standard required.

    Discussion

    "“Advantages” and “rationale” are two different questions and should be answered as such" is an important point to make.  Rationale seems to be often conflated with advantages, in the sense that exam candidates tend to view it as a part of the answer where they note down the reasons for why the intervention being evaluated is being suggested. That is not what the rationale is; that is a list of advantages. The rationale is a description of how the proposed intervention is expected to achieve its desired effect. It is a reasoned logical basis for the intervention being proposed, rather than the  ways in which it is a proposed improvement on another system. Various positive features may come up in the course of the explanation but they are not the primary focus.

    In this case:

    Rationale:

    • High quality CPR is important to resuscitation outcome
    • Interruptions of CPR degrade the chance of successful defibrillation 
    • Rescuer fatigue degrades the quality of CPR over time
    • Chest compressions are a simple repetitive mechanical task, easily reproduced with simple machines
    • Ergo, mechanical CPR devices should be able to offer better continuity of CPR of a reliable stable quality.

    Advantages:

    • CPR is of uniform (presumably, high) quality.
    • CPR is not interrupted for defibrillation or radiation exposure (eg. in cath lab)
    • ECMO cannulation may take place with CPR in progress.
    • The device is more portable than a group of rescuers.
    • Removes a rescuer from a manual role and allows more personnel to take part in higher order thinking and decisionmaking

    Disadvantages:

    • The device takes time to set up. this increases the no-flow time during the early stages of cardiac arrest
    • An incorrectly aligned device might actually perform poorer compressions than a rescuer, because a rescuer corrects their own position.
    • Injury may occur from incorrectly placed devices. Theoretical injury patterns include liver, lung,  spleen and stomach lacerations, as well as mediastinal or aortic trauma. 

    Evidence:

    • LINC - 2013 - LUCAS vs manual CPR. n=2589 in Europe. No difference in 4-hr survival (23.6% vs 23.7%).

    • PARAMEDIC - LUCAS-2 vs manual CPR. n=4471 in the UK. No difference in 30-day survival (6 vs 7%), but only 60% of those randomised to LUCAS actually got LUCASed.

    • CIRC - 2014 - AutoPulse vs manual CPR. n=4231 in US and Europe. No difference in 24-hour survival  (21.8% vs 25.0%). Plus the rate of rib fractures was almost doubled (from 31 to 69 of ~ 2100 patients), and the risk of pneumothorax increased by a third

    • ASPIRE - 2010 - Paradis et al (2010) reported on the way in which this trial was stopped early, as the result of a prorocol

    Own practice with rationale:

    • Use where CPR will be prolonged, and consistent quality will be required
      • Cardiac arrest due to hypothermia
      • Cardiac arrest following thrombolysis for PE or MI
    • Use where rescuers are few, or unskilled:
      • Pre-hospital setting
      • Rural and regional setting
    • Use where space is limited
      • Aeromedical retrieval
      • Ambulance transport
      • Interventional radiology suite
    • Use as a part of a larger ECPR bundle a'la CHEER, where ECMO cannulation and a trip to angio are essential parts of the Welcome to The Alfred package.

    References

    Poole, Kurtis, et al. "Mechanical CPR: who? when? how?." Critical Care 22 (2018): 1-9.

    Paradis, Norman A., et al. "Inhomogeneity and temporal effects in AutoPulse Assisted Prehospital International Resuscitation—an exception from consent trial terminated early." The American journal of emergency medicine 28.4 (2010): 391-398.

    Stub, Dion, et al. "Refractory cardiac arrest treated with mechanical CPR, hypothermia, ECMO and early reperfusion (the CHEER trial)." Resuscitation 86 (2015): 88-94.

    Rubertsson, Sten, et al. "Mechanical chest compressions and simultaneous defibrillation vs conventional cardiopulmonary resuscitation in out-of-hospital cardiac arrest: the LINC randomized trial." Jama 311.1 (2014): 53-61.

    Perkins, Gavin D., et al. "Mechanical versus manual chest compression for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (PARAMEDIC): a pragmatic, cluster randomised controlled trial." The Lancet 385.9972 (2015): 947-955.

    Wik, Lars, et al. "Manual vs. integrated automatic load-distributing band CPR with equal survival after out of hospital cardiac arrest. The randomized CIRC trial." Resuscitation 85.6 (2014): 741-748.

    Steen, Stig, et al. "The critical importance of minimal delay between chest compressions and subsequent defibrillation: a haemodynamic explanation." Resuscitation 58.3 (2003): 249-258.

    Gallagher, E. John, Gary Lombardi, and Paul Gennis. "Effectiveness of bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation and survival following out-of-hospital cardiac arrest." Jama 274.24 (1995): 1922-1925.

    Yu, Ting, et al. "Adverse outcomes of interrupted precordial compression during automated defibrillation." Circulation 106.3 (2002): 368-372.

    Ochoa, F. Javier, et al. "The effect of rescuer fatigue on the quality of chest compressions." Resuscitation 37.3 (1998): 149-152.

    Hallstrom, Al, et al. "Manual chest compression vs use of an automated chest compression device during resuscitation following out-of-hospital cardiac arrest: a randomized trial." Jama 295.22 (2006): 2620-2628.

    Pantazopoulos, C., et al. "1036. Comparison of the hemodynamic parameters of two external chest compression devices (LUCAS versus AUROPULSE) in a swine model of ventricular fibrillation." Intensive Care Medicine Experimental 2.Suppl 1 (2014): P83.

    Gates, Simon, et al. "Mechanical chest compression for out of hospital cardiac arrest: Systematic review and meta-analysis." Resuscitation 94 (2015): 91-97.

    Carretero Casado, Maria Jose, et al. "RESUSCITATION WITH AUTOMATED DEVICES: HAEMODYNAMIC COMPARISON BETWEEN LUCAS AND AUTOPULSE IN A PORCINE MODEL." Emergencias 26.6 (2014).

    Smekal, David, et al. "A pilot study of mechanical chest compressions with the LUCAS™ device in cardiopulmonary resuscitation." Resuscitation 82.6 (2011): 702-706.

    Wang, Peter L., and Steven C. Brooks. "Mechanical versus manual chest compressions for cardiac arrest." Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews 8 (2018).

    El-Menyar, Ayman, et al. "Mechanical versus manual cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): an umbrella review of contemporary systematic reviews and more." Critical Care 28.1 (2024): 259.

    Zhao, Yang, Da Chen, and Qian Wang. "Comparison of mechanical versus manual cardiopulmonary resuscitation in cardiac arrest." Critical Care 28.1 (2024): 319.

    Question 4 - 2024, Paper 2

    Choose ONE of the following minimally invasive continuous cardiac output (CCO) monitoring devices
    used in critically ill patients as an alternative to the Pulmonary Artery Catheter (PAC). 

    For either PiCCO OR FloTrac OR LiDCOplus:
    a. Outline the measurement principles used to generate CCO. (4 marks)
    b. Explain how the device is calibrated. (2 marks)
    c. Discuss the limitations of its use in clinical practice. (4 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care: Haemodynamic monitoring: L1


    Discussion: 

    Candidates scored poorly in this question due to a lack of understanding of the topic and the principles of continuous cardiac output (CCO) monitoring. Many candidates didn’t answer the question that was asked or interpreted the question incorrectly and provided information about all 3 devices rather than just 1 device which was explicitly stated in the question with underlining and bolded. Candidates are advised to read the instructions carefully for maximum time efficiency. The question required candidates to understand that these devices use analysis of the pulse pressure waveform and a proprietary algorithm to generate a CCO and some (PiCCO/LiDCO) combine this with thermodilution. Candidates that scored well in this question understood the basic principles of pulse pressure waveform analysis as outlined above, internal vs external calibration, and that limitations relate to the various elements of a device. These limitations include the actual line (art or CVC), transducer system, thermodilution techniques and patient specific factors (pulse waveform analysis is not validated in certain patient populations like ECMO or post pneumonectomy). Candidates that considered the individual components of a device were able to use this to structure their answer for all 3 parts of the question. The marking rubric is included to aid the candidate’s future study.

    Below standard

    At standard

    Above standard

    PiCCO

    a) Principles

    No or incorrect understanding that analysis of the arterial pressure waveform is combined with transpulmonary thermodilution.

    No or minimal awareness of a proprietary algorithm.

    Basic understanding that analysis of the arterial pressure waveform is combined with transpulmonary thermodilution.

    Awareness of a proprietary algorithm to generate CCO from the patient specific thermodilution generated CO.

    Detailed understanding of how analysis of the arterial pressure waveform is combined with transpulmonary thermodilution. Awareness of the proprietary algorithm and some recognition it is affected by haemodynamic changes (HR and aortic compliance).

    (4 marks)

    0-1.5 mark

    2-3 marks

    3.5-4 marks

    b) Calibration

    No or incorrect understanding of how PiCCO is calibrated.

    Understands calibrated via transpulmonary thermodilution to generate a patient specific CO.

    Detailed understanding including externally calibrated via transpulmonary thermodilution and thermistor tipped catheter.

    Needs recalibrating periodically or when haemodynamic changes occur.

    (2 marks)

    0-0.5 mark

    1-1.5 marks

    2 marks

    c) Limitations

    Incorrect or no recognition of the limitations in clinical practice.

    Recognises that there are factors affect accuracy of either thermodilution or arterial waveform.

    Recognises that factors affecting accuracy of both thermodilution and arterial waveform are limitations to its use.

    Minimal detail for each of the above and/or lacking awareness of specific populations it can’t be used in.

    Understands

    -Factors affecting accuracy of thermodilution (technique/pathological conditions)

    -Factors affecting accuracy of arterial waveform (vasomotor tone/SVR and technical factors affecting arterial line transducer)

    -PWA can’t be used in certain populations (VV and VA ECMO, pneumonectomy, IABP etc)

    -Aware that PiCCO not correlated in Off Pump CABG and needs recalibrating as Above

    (4 marks)

    0-1.5 mark

    2-3 marks

    3.5-4 marks

    FloTrac

    a) Principles

    No or incorrect understanding that uses analysis of the pulse pressure characteristics.

    No or incorrect understanding of proprietary algorithm.

    Basic understanding that uses analysis of pulse pressure characteristics and a proprietary algorithm to produce CO.

    Good understanding that uses analysis of pressure waveform characteristics on a beat-to-beat basis and a proprietary algorithm that incorporates changes in arterial compliance and resistance.

    (4 marks)

    0-1.5 mark

    2-3 marks

    3.5-4 marks

    b) Calibration

    (2 marks)

    No or incorrect understanding of how FloTrac is calibrated

    0-0.5 mark

    Understands calibrated prior to use with a population data set as reference.

    1-1.5 marks

    Detailed understanding including internally calibrated using a population and haemodynamic data set.

    2 marks

    c) Limitations

    (4 marks)

    Incorrect or no recognition of the limitations in clinical practice.

    Recognises that either technical or patient factors affect accuracy of arterial waveform and are limitations to its use.

    0-1.5 mark

    Recognises that technical and patient factors affect accuracy of arterial waveform and are limitations to its use.

    Minimal detail for each of the above and/or lacking awareness of specific populations it can’t be used in.

    2-3 marks

    Understands

    -Factors affecting accuracy of arterial waveform can be both physiological (vasomotor tone/SVR) and technical (affecting arterial line transducer)

    -PWA can’t be used in certain populations (VV and VA ECMO, pneumonectomy, IABP etc)

    -Aware that FloTrac not correlated in vasodilated states (sepsis and liver failure) or in patients not represented in the population data sets.

    3.5-4 marks

    LiDCO

    a) Principles

    (4 marks)

    No or incorrect understanding that analysis of the arterial pressure waveform is combined with transpulmonary thermodilution.

    No or incorrect understanding of proprietary algorithm.

    0-1.5 mark

    Basic understanding that analysis of the arterial pressure waveform is combined with transpulmonary lithium thermodilution.

    Awareness of a proprietary algorithm to generate CCO from the patient specific lithium thermodilution generated CO.

    2-3 marks

    Detailed understanding of how analysis of the arterial pressure waveform is combined with transpulmonary thermodilution to generate CCO.

    Awareness of the proprietary algorithm and some recognition it is affected by arterial compliance.

    3.5-4 marks

    b) Calibration

    (2 marks)

    No or incorrect understanding of how LiDCO is calibrated

    0-0.5 mark

    Understands calibrated via transpulmonary lithium thermodilution to generate a patient specific CO.

    1-1.5 marks

    Detailed understanding including externally calibrated via lithium transpulmonary thermodilution and lithium sensor tipped catheter.

    Needs recalibrating periodically or when haemodynamic changes occur.

    2 marks

    c) Limitations

    (4 marks)

    Incorrect or no recognition of the limitations in clinical practice.

    Recognises that factors affect accuracy of either thermodilution or arterial waveform are limitations to its use.

    0-1.5 mark

    Recognises that factors affecting accuracy of both thermodilution and arterial waveform are limitations to its use.

    Minimal detail for each of the above and/or lacking awareness of specific populations it can’t be used in.

    2-3 marks

    Understands

    -Factors affecting accuracy of thermodilution (technique/pathological conditions)

    -Factors affecting accuracy of arterial waveform (vasomotor tone/SVR and technical factors affecting arterial line transducer)

    -PWA can’t be used in certain populations (VV and VA ECMO, pneumonectomy, IABP etc)

    -Aware that LiDCO overestimates CO in patients receiving lithium therapy and with certain muscle relaxants and needs recalibrating as above.

    3.5-4 marks

    Discussion

    This exhaustive rubric leaves little room for frivolous misinterpretation. A model answer is probably not necessary for something like this, but here goes anyway (the main challenge being to get this into under 200 words for each device). 

    PiCCO:

    • Principles:
      • A combination of transpulmonary thermodilution and pulse contour analysis
      • A known volume of cold injectate is delivered via CVC
      • temperature change is measured by a thermistor tipped arterial catheter
      • The resulting thermodilution curve is used to derive cardiac output by the Stewart-Hamilton formula, as well as several calculated variables
    • Calibration:
      • Calibrated using transpulmonary thermodilution 
      • The algorithm is based on the relationship between stroke volume and the area under the systolic portion of the aortic pressure waveform
      • It depends on the compliance of the arterial circulation
      • The algorithm used by each manufacturer is proprietary
      • Needs to be recalibrated every 6-8 hrs
    • Limitations:
      • A CVC is required
      • A large arterial catheter is required
      • This catheter cannot be inserted at the same site as the CVC
      • The pulmonary pressure or wedge pressure cannot be measured
      • Pulse contour analysis of cardiac output cannot be relied upon where the patient has a balloon pump or is in atrial fibrillation
      • Pulse contour analysis tends to drif from calibration and needs to be recalibrated regularly as the patient's condition changes
      • The thermodilution measurement may be confused by the presence of large bodies of fluid in the chest that act as thermal sinks, eg. pleural or pericardial effusions (Oren-Grinberg, 2010)

    LiDCO:

    • Principles:
      • Transpulmonary i​​​​ndicator dilution method of cardiac output monitoring using the Stewart Hamilton method
      • A small amount of lithium chloride (0.002 to 0.004 mmol/kg) is injected into a vein
      • A lithium-sensitive electrode then senses the lithium in the arterial circulation
      • The resulting dilution curve is used to derive cardiac output by the Stewart-Hamilton formula, as well as several calculated variables.
    • Calibration:
      • The algorithm is based on the relationship between stroke volume and the area under the systolic portion of the aortic pressure waveform
      • It depends on the compliance of the arterial circulation
      • The algorithm used by the manufacturer is proprietary
      • "a beat-to-beat cardiac output monitor that calculates stroke volume from the arterial pressure waveform using an autocorrelation algorithm"
      • Needs to be recalibrated every 6-8 hrs
    • Limitations:
      • Inaccurate results if there are intracardiac shunts
      • Patients on lithium therapy will have inaccurate results
      • “electrode drift” can occur if there are high doses of muscle relaxants present (the quaternary ammonium residues interfere with the lithium sensor)
      • You do end up disposing of some blood each time you sample.
      • The inputs into the equations that run the cardiac output monitoring require you to input serum sodium and haematocrit measurements
      • The system does not report intrathoracic blood volume index
      • The support in the literature is smaller in terms of the number of studies as compared to PiCCO or the PA catheter

    FloTrac:

    • Principles:
      • an uncalibrated pulse contour analysis monitor
      • works on the premise that, if the compliance of the arterial circulation is known, then the stroke volume can be calculated from the pulse pressure
      • estimates the compliance on the basis of the waveform contour and some loookup tables from empirical measurements
    • Calibration:
      • ​​​​​​​No need to calibrate - therefore, instantly useable from insertion
      • No additional data beyond patient demographics is needed
      • Patient haemodynamic variables are used to estimate arterial compliance
    • Limitations:
      • ​​​​​​​Dependent on good trace quality
      • Affected by damping and resonance
      • Obviusly impossible to use in atrial fibrillation, IABP, VA ECMo with nonpulsatile flow
      • Severe derangedments in arterial compliance (extremes of vasodilation or vasoconstriction) are likely to produce inaccurate readings
      • The patient population in the data set used to generate the data may not be representative of the patient being monitored, eg. it does not cover severe sepsiss liver failure, etc

    As one might imagine, the act of putting together something succinct has left this author with the frustrated need to deep dive into the plie fascinating information that was left on the cutting room floor. Large swaths of the PiCCO, LiDCO and FloTrac chapters were renovated in the course of this process. Of the random directions into which this travelled the most interesting was probably the long painful explanation of how the pulse contour is magically transformed into the cardiac output

    References

    Litton*, E., and M. Morgan. "The PiCCO monitor: a review." Anaesthesia and intensive care 40.3 (2012): 393-408.

    Oren-Grinberg, Achikam. "The piCCO monitor." International anesthesiology clinics 48.1 (2010): 57-85.

    Huber, W., et al. "Recalibration of pulse contour cardiac output using the PiCCO-2 device: when to perform the next thermodilution?." Critical Care 13 (2009): 1-2.

    Hadian, Mehrnaz, et al. "Cross-comparison of cardiac output trending accuracy of LiDCO, PiCCO, FloTrac and pulmonary artery catheters." Critical care 14 (2010): 1-10.

    From Bersten and Soni’s” Oh's Intensive Care Manual”, 6th Edition, as well as http://www.pulsion.com/ who are sadly the best source for this sort of information.

    Sundar, Sugantha, and Peter Panzica. "LiDCO systems." International anesthesiology clinics 48.1 (2010): 87-100.

    Hadian, Mehrnaz, et al. "Cross-comparison of cardiac output trending accuracy of LiDCO, PiCCO, FloTrac and pulmonary artery catheters." Critical care 14 (2010): 1-10.

    Argueta, Erwin, et al. "FloTrac® Monitoring System: What Are Its Uses in Critically III Medical Patients?." The American Journal of the Medical Sciences 349.4 (2015): 352-356.

    Compton, F. D., et al. "Performance of a minimally invasive uncalibrated cardiac output monitoring system (FloTrac™/Vigileo™) in haemodynamically unstable patients." British journal of anaesthesia 100.4 (2008): 451-456.

    Manecke, Gerard R. "Edwards FloTrac™ sensor and Vigileo™ monitor: easy, accurate, reliable cardiac output assessment using the arterial pulse wave." Expert Review of Medical Devices 2.5 (2005): 523-527.

    Krejci, Vladimir, et al. "Comparison of calibrated and uncalibrated arterial pressure–based cardiac output monitors during orthotopic liver transplantation." Liver transplantation 16.6 (2010): 773-782.

    Question 17 - 2024, Paper 2

    Critically evaluate the use of veno-venous extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (V-V ECMO) for hypoxaemic respiratory failure in adults.
    Your answer should include:
    a) The criteria used to determine if a patient is a suitable candidate for V-V ECMO. (4 marks)
    b) Advantages and disadvantages of V-V ECMO in this context. (3 marks)
    c) The evidence for V-V ECMO in hypoxaemic respiratory failure. (3 marks)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care: Mechanical supports ECMO: L1


    Discussion: 

    Some candidates had a limited knowledge of VV ECMO and its physiological benefits and at times confused it with VA ECMO, particularly in part b).

    Many candidates only provided the indications for VV ECMO in part a) and didn’t include the contraindications that would also determine a candidate's suitability for VV ECMO.
    In part b) some candidates included broad statements like “prevents death or worsening organ failure” rather than describing the specific advantages of reduced ventilatory pressure to prevent further lung injury or reduction in hypoxia by returning fully oxygenated blood and clearing CO2.

    The last part of the question was generally poorly answered, with few candidates demonstrating knowledge of the evidence or the controversies and little appreciation of the differing interpretations of the trials.

    Discussion

    Yes, ECMO might be described as a niche therapy available only in the Sandstone Centres of University-Affiliated Excellence, but the college does insist on producing high-quality fellows capable of working everywhere, and nobody would view them as a complete package if they cannot at least demonstrate some passing knowledge of this technology. The last time this came up, as Question 23 from the second paper of  2014 and Question 11 from the second paper of 2010, the pass rates were 43% and 19%, respectively. 

    a) Criteria for suitability

    • Indications and favourable conditions
      • Severe hypoxia (eg. PF ratio >80)
      • Severe hypercapnia ( eg. CO2 > 60, pH >< 7.25)
      • High composite score (eg. Murray score > 3, as in the CESAR trial)
      • Ineffective conventional strategies (eg. no improvement from prone ventilation)
      • ARDS, CAP, asthma, aspiration, pulmonary contusions, alveolar haemorrhage, immunocompetent status
    • Contraindications and unfavourable conditions:
      • Age > 75, obesity (BMI > 45), poor vascular access
      • Prolonged injurious ventilation (eg. 7 days at Pplat 30)
      • Contraindications to anticoagulation, eg. intracranial haemorrhage or uncontrolled surgical bleeding
      • Poor prognosis for other reasons (eg. malignancy)
      • Multiorgan system failure (eg. in EOLIA trial, SAPSII > 90)

    a) Advantages and disadvantages

    The trainees answering this question would potentially be confused by the wording. "Advantages and disadvantages" of something usually means it is being compared to another option. What would that be in this case? Prone ventilation? Hypoxia and death? Hard to know. In this scenario, the safest stance to take would be "VV ECMO vs maximum conventional support including prone ventilation and/or inhaled pulmonary vasodilators", because that is the sort of position one would be forced into when ECMO is needed but not available.

    Advantages

    • VV ECMO allows ventilation with protective volumes and pressures
    • This prevents further lung injury and allows healing
    • The modest pressures permitted by ECMO allow for adequate venous return and better haemodynamics, which in turn improves organ function 
    • The ability to remove CO2 removes the need for "permissive hypercapnia" which has adverse neurological and haemodynamic effects
    • The patient can be weaned from sedation and paralysis earlier, which decreases the risk of ICU-acquired weakness and delirium (plus the transition to spontaneous breathing is also faster)
    • The lack of dependence on high pressures and heavy-handed sedation makes cough safer and easier, which reduces the risk of pneumothorax and bronchopleural fistula (plus improves sputum clearance)
    • Awake patients supported on ECMO can participate in chest physiotherapy without breathlessness-related exercise intolerance

    Disadvantages

    • ECMO in general is resource-expensive and carries a risk of vascular injuries, DVT, PE, pressure injuries, and anticoagulation-related bleeding risks (though this point is very generic, and it is unclear whether it would have gained any marks)
    • Unsuitable for patients with very high cardiac output (eg. young patients with respiratory sepsis and hyperdynamic circulation)
    • Unsuitable for patients with a very low cardiac output (eg. where the respiratory failure is complicated by cardiogenic shock)
    • The use of ultralow tidal volumes and modest pressures can lead to the development of atelectasis and pneumonia in previously viable lung
    • The risk of post-decannulation VTE from DVTs that formed in partially obstructed femoral veins can undo a lot of the positive gas exchange benefits of protective ventilation
    • Reduced mobility (or, increased risk of cannula dislodgement with mobility)
    • Recirculation can limit the efficiency of the circuit
    • Repositioning the patient becomes more dangerous, which leads to a reluctance to prone or regularly rotate the patient's position
    • Increased complexity of care leads to the increased propensity towards error, whereas conventional ventilation is simpler and less error-prone

    c) The evidence for V-V ECMO in hypoxaemic respiratory failure:

    There are only really two trials one can mention here:

    • CESAR (Peek et al, 2009)
      • ECMO within 7 days of initiating ventilation
      • n=180, in the UK.
      • No difference in mortality
      • 24% got randomised to ECMO but never received it.
    • EOLIA (Combes et al 2018)
      • ECMO within 7 days of initiating ventilation
      • n=249, mostly in France.
      • Difference in mortality 35% (ECMO) vs 46% (control) but not statistically significant, plus 28% crossed over to ECMO. 
    • ELSO registry: 58% survival in 36,865 cases in the last 5 years 
    • In short, the data are not sufficiently convincing to make a strong case for ECMO, but it remains the only option for patients failing conventional therapy (eg. prone ventilation) 
    • Unanswered questions include the optimal timing of ECMO (earlier = better?) and the ideal range of selection criteria.

    References

    Question 20 - 2024, Paper 2

    a) Regarding the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP):

    i. List the indications for use. (2 marks)

    ii. Outline the haemodynamic effects. (4 marks)

    iii. List the complications. (2 marks)

    b) Explain the haemodynamic consequences of each of the following IABP traces. (both traces are at 1:2 augmentation).

    i. (1 mark)

    ii. (1 mark)

    College answer

    Syllabus topic/section:

    2.1.4    Cardiovascular Intensive Care: Mechanical supports IABP: L1


    Discussion: 

    Listing the indications and complications was well done by candidates that knew the topic.

    Candidates that did well for part ii) were able to outline the haemodynamic effects and relate them to the indications they had listed in part i). For example, describing how an IABP may be beneficial in acute MR or VSD provided candidates with a good structure to their answer. It also ensured they outlined the effects rather than just listing them which scored less marks as the question asked candidates to “outline (provide a summary of the important points) the haemodynamic effects” not just list them which some candidates did, and as a result scored lower marks.
    A number of candidates mixed up the 2 traces in part b) or gave the right haemodynamic consequence but the wrong explanation and sometimes appeared to have written down the wrong word e.g. inflation instead of deflation or early instead of late. Due to the mark allocations in the question candidates could still achieve a pass without having to interpret the IABP traces correctly.
     

    Discussion

    a)

    i) Indications for IABP:

    Cardiogenic shock:

    • Failure to come off bypass
    • Severe MR
    • ventricular septal defect
    • Ischaemic coronary disease while waiting for PCI

    Prophylactic use

    • High risk CABG patients (pre-op)
    • High-risk PCI patients (pre-op)

    Controversial indications:

    • Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
    • Neurogenic stress cardiomyopathy of subarachnoid haemorrhage
    • Severe aortic stenosis

    ii) Haemodynamic effects, as an outline rather than list, because 4 marks:

    • The balloon inflates in diastole:
      • displaces aortic blood into the coronary arteries
      • myocardial perfusion and therefore contractility improves
      • plus small volume of aortic blood is displaced into the systemic circulation
      • Net effect is an increased cardiac output
    • The balloon deflates before systole:
      • decreases aortic pressure
      • reduces LV afterload
      • thereby decreases LV workload and improves directional flow across a regurgitant mitral valve or VSD

    iii). Complications:

    • Poor operation of the device
      • Mis-timing
      • Haemolysis
      • Mechanical failure
    • Common complications
      • Mild limb ischaemia - 2.9%
      • Balloon leak - 1.0%
      • Major limb ischaemia - 0.9%
      • Haemorrhage - 0.8%
      • Leg amputation due to ischaemia - 0.1%
    • Rare complications
      • Atheromatous cholesterol emboli
      • Aortic or arterial dissection
      • Cerebrovascular accident
      • Thrombocytopenia
      • Haemolysis
      • Helium embolism

    b) Explain the haemodynamic consequences of these waveforms:

    i)

    This is early inflation. Early balloon inflation results in:

    • Increased LV oxygen demand, due to increased afterload
    • Decreased LV oxygen supply, due to decreased diastolic perfusion
    • Decreased cardiac output, due to decreased stroke volume

    ii) 

    This is late deflation. Late balloon deflation causes:

    • increased aortic end-diastolic pressure
    • thus increased afterload and left ventricular oxygen consumption

    References

    BUCKLEY, MORTIMER J., et al. "Intra-aortic balloon pump assist for cardiogenic shock after cardiopulmonary bypass.Circulation 48.1S3 (1973): III-90.

    Sjauw, Krischan D., et al. "A systematic review and meta-analysis of intra-aortic balloon pump therapy in ST-elevation myocardial infarction: should we change the guidelines?." European heart journal 30.4 (2009): 459-468.

    Unverzagt, Susanne, et al. "Intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation (IABP) for myocardial infarction complicated by cardiogenic shock." Cochrane Database Syst Rev 7 (2011).

    Perera, Divaka, et al. "Elective intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation during high-risk percutaneous coronary intervention." JAMA: the journal of the American Medical Association 304.8 (2010): 867-874.

    GOLD, HERMAN K., et al. "Intraaortic balloon pumping for ventricular septal defect or mitral regurgitation complicating acute myocardial infarction." Circulation 47.6 (1973): 1191-1196.

    Kettner, Jiri, et al. "Utility of Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump Support for Ventricular Septal Rupture and Acute Mitral Regurgitation Complicating Acute Myocardial Infarction."The American journal of cardiology (2013).

    Townsley, Matthew M. "Prophylactic Intra-aortic Balloon Counterpulsation—Still Searching for Answers." Journal of cardiothoracic and vascular anesthesia (2018).

    Schreuder, Jan J., et al. "Beat-to-beat effects of intraaortic balloon pump timing on left ventricular performance in patients with low ejection fraction." The Annals of thoracic surgery 79.3 (2005): 872-880.

    Hanlon-Pena, Patricia M., and Susan J. Quaal. "Intra-aortic balloon pump timing: review of evidence supporting current practice." American Journal of Critical Care 20.4 (2011): 323-334.

    Krishna, Murli, and Kai Zacharowski. "Principles of intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation." Continuing Education in Anaesthesia, Critical Care & Pain9.1 (2009): 24-28.

    Question 12 - 2025, Paper 1

    a)    Define systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve (2 marks)

    b)    List the risk factors for SAM (3 marks)

    c)    Outline the specific management of SAM causing hemodynamic instability in a patient post cardiac surgery (5 marks)
     


     

    College comments

    Syllabus topic/section: 2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care: Valvular Heart Disease L1

    Discussion: 

    Systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve is weh and is an important consideration in such patients who are shocked on return from theatre.

    When defining SAM, candidates who scored higher marks were able to provide physiological consequences of SAM, including mitral regurgitation. This shows a greater understanding of the disorder.

    If time permits, when describing management strategies, candidates could improve their answers by providing a brief rationale for individual therapies: For example: Fluid bolus to improve preload and decrease LVOT obstruction; Increased vasopressor support to increase SVR and afterload, maintaining increased LV volume at the end of systole and reduce LVOT obstruction.

    Generally speaking, candidates should ensure their handwriting is legible.
     

    .

    Interpretation

    a)    Define systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve (2 marks)

    SAM is defined as "displacement of the distal portion of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve toward the left ventricular outflow tract" - Lasala et al (2017)

    This definition was somehow not enough to score full marks. The examiners also expected "physiological consequences of SAM, including mitral regurgitation", which would have shown a greater understanding of telepathy by the candidates. One may take heart in the knowledge that for the majority of the other CICM exam questions in the new era, the asked question represents the examined content, and there should be no need to game the answer to guess what the examiners are thinking.

    Those physiological consequences are:

    • LVOT obstruction
      • thus, a low cardiac output state occuring in the presence of a higher cardiac contractility
    • Mitral regurgitation (eccentric)
      • thus, pulmonary oedema

    b)    List the risk factors for SAM (3 marks)

    • These are few:
      • Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
      • Small LV chamber volume (low preload)
      • Low afterload (allows the outflow tract to collapse)
      • High contractility
      • Atrial fibrillation (a variant of low preload, it keeps the ventricle underfilled by loss of atrial kick)
    • Additionally, these congenital abnormalities can be listed together as "congenital abnormalities" because who would remember them all, for example:
      • Redundant anterior leaflet
      • Redundant posterior leaflet
      • Papillary muscle displacement 
      • Anatomical anomaly of the chordae
      • Undersized mitral annulus
      • Anterior displacement of the mitral valve (congenitally, surgically or by disease)
      • Low anterior-posterior length ratio of the valve (i.e. ovoid valve)

    c)    Outline the specific management of SAM causing hemodynamic instability in a patient post cardiac surgery (5 marks)

    Five marks conveniently matches five main strategies:

    • Increase preload. Insufficient diastolic filling pressure is said to contribute to LVOT obstruction. Give fluid boluses until euvolaemia is achieved.
    • Decrease heart rate to increase diastolic filling time (as much as is permitted by the relatively fixed stroke volume, i.e. the less heart rate the less cardiac output there will be)
    • Maintain sinus rhythm. Atrial contraction contributes to LV diastolic filling and reduces MR.
    • Reduce contractility; wean inotropes.
    • Maintain a high afterload; aim for a higher MAP target to maintain LVOT patency during systole

    Lastly,  if the SAM has occurred because of a new mitral valve, one other (unpalatable) option is to re-do the valve.

    References

    Lasala, Javier D., et al. "Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve—the mechanism of postural hypotension following left intrapericardial pneumonectomy." Journal of Thoracic Disease 9.4 (2017): E354.

    Vilcant, Viliane, and Ofek Hai. "Left Ventricular Outflow Tract Obstruction." StatPearls [Internet]. StatPearls Publishing, 2018.

    Halpern, Ethan J., et al. "Characterization and normal measurements of the left ventricular outflow tract by ECG-gated cardiac CT: implications for disorders of the outflow tract and aortic valve." Academic radiology 19.10 (2012): 1252-1259.

    Ibrahim, Michael, et al. "Modern management of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve." European Journal of Cardio-Thoracic Surgery 41.6 (2012): 1260-1270.

    Luckie, M., and R. S. Khattar. "Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve—beyond hypertrophic cardiomyopathy." Heart 94.11 (2008): 1383-1385.

    Raut, Monish, Arun Maheshwari, and Baryon Swain. "Awareness of ‘systolic anterior motion’in different conditions." Clinical Medicine Insights: Cardiology 12 (2018): 1179546817751921.

    Manabe, Susumu, et al. "Management of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve: a mechanism-based approach." General thoracic and cardiovascular surgery 66 (2018): 379-389.

    Question 20 - 2025, Paper 1

    Discuss the potential mechanical strategies for supporting myocardial function in a 58-year-old patient presenting with cardiogenic shock post-revascularisation for an acute anterior myocardial infarction.

    In your answer, include the physiological rationale for each strategy.
    (10 marks)
     


     

    College comments

    Syllabus topic/section: Section 2.1.4 Cardiovascular Intensive Care. Topic: Ischaemic heart disease, mechanical supports

    Discussion: 

    This question focused on the discussion of mechanical strategies for supporting cardiogenic shock following myocardial infarction which should include rationale, advantages and disadvantages. Marks were awarded to strategies such as VA ECMO, IABP, Ventricular Assist Device, Microaxial flow pump (Impella) and cardiac pacing. Discussion of at least VA ECMO and IABP was expected of candidates.

    Some candidates focussed on explaining the physiological rationale for each strategy only. The question asked the Candidate to “Discuss”. In the glossary of terms discuss is defined as “explanation of the key principles, where appropriate this may include controversies and /or advantages and disadvantages”. The successful Candidates discussed the advantages and disadvantages of potential mechanical strategies in addition to the physiological rationale for each strategy.

    Candidates are reminded that the glossary of terms is an aid to guide the answer content required and this will gain marks.
     

    Interpretation

    Mechanical Haemodynamic Support Strategies
    Strategy Advantages Limitations

    Positive pressure ventilation:
    the use of positive pressure to decrease LV preload and afterload (by manipulating LV transmural pressure)

    • Easy to apply
    • Minimally invasive
    • Added benefit of improved oxygenation and gas exchange
    • Invasive ventilation has the added benefit of anaesthesia +/- paralysis, which decreases whole-body oxygen demand
    • Preload reduction may result in hypotension in the volume-depleted patient
    • Increased intrathoracic pressure increases RV afterload, exacerbating right heart failure
    • Positive pressure may result in barotrauma and volutrauma
    • All the risks of mechanical ventilation apply, eg. VAP
    Temporary transcutaneous pacing:
    Increase cardiac output crudely, as CO = HR × SV
    • Requires minimal skill to apply
    • Minimally invasive
    • Cardiac output will increase in proportion to hear rate
    • Requires a substantial amount of analgesia and sedation
    • Uncomfortable for the patient
    • May cause significant tissue damage
    • Not a long-term solution
    • Poor A-V synchrony with 

    Temporary transvenous pacing

    Increase cardiac output crudely, as CO = HR × SV

    • Comparatively easy to insert
    • Dual-chamber pacing may improve A-V synchrony and restore the "atrial kick".
    • Not only does it work in bradycardia, but also by "overdrive pacing" in tachycardia, where the slowed heart rate allows for longer diastolic filling
    • Requires some expertise to manage and troubleshoot
    • Invasive, with all the risks of large-bore central venous access
    • Generally, one can only pace the ventricle, which means A-V synchrnoy will be lost; the "atrial kick" may be sorely missed by patients with severe valve dysfunction
    Cardiac resynchronisation therapy: biventricular pacing with precise timing improves the synchrony between ventricles, making their activity more efficient 
    • Restores synchrony to ventricular contraction in patients with severe heart failure
    • There is strong evidence that CRT reduces mortality and hospitalisation  (i.e. it is superior to AICD or medical therapy).
    • Requires specialist skill to insert and adjust; hardly an emergency procedure
    • To benefit, one must have LBBB, a wide QRS, and an LVEF less than 35%.
    • Generally, only about 5-10% of heart failure patients will benefit
    • There is a "heterogeneity of effect" in patients  who do not meet the recognised criteria (read: it does them no good)
    Intra-aortic balloon pump: Inflates a balloon in the aorta during diastole, improving coronary filling; deflates it during systole, reducing afterload.
    • Decreases LV afterload
    • Improves coronary arterial filling in diastole
    • Improves forward flow though defective mitral valves
    • Nowadays, little adjustment is required (automatic timing is usually satisfactory)
    • "Severe" cardiogenic shock is still not very well investigated, and there may be an unrecognised  mortality benefit in this group.
    • Violently invasive
    • Requires a certain level of expertise to place correctly.
    • Significant complications are associated with its use, including a non-zero rate of death and limb loss.
    • The mortality benefit in most patients might either be marginal or altogether absent, depending on what you read. Certainly, the IABP-SHOCK II trail did not demonstrate any survival improvement.
    • Does not benefit the right ventricle.
    • Contraindicated in aortic regurgitation
    • Poor effect in AF, particularly rapid AF
    Ventricular assist devices: bypass the native LV, RV or both, to pump blood into the pulmonary and systemic circulation
    • Decreases myocardial workload
    • Offers a bridge to heart transplantation
    • Effective temporary support for myocardial stunning
    • May afford a period of outpatient management
    • Highly invasive
    • Requires surgical expertise to implement
    • Requires significant anticoagulation
    • Substantial risk of infection (50%)
    • Does not oxygenate the blood
    • In spite of anticoagulation, there is a significant risk of thrombosis

    VA- ECMO

    extracts venous blood, oxygenates it, and returns it under pressure into the systemic circulation (retrograde flow)

    • Not only decreases myocardial workload- it may take over all of the circulatory workload.
    • Attends to both circulation and gas exchange
    • Easier to implement (percutaneous technique does not require surgical expertise)
    • Unloads the RV and LV by transferring some preload to the circuit
    • Highly invasive
    • Requires expertise to implement
    • Requires significant anticoagulation
    • In spite of anticoagulation, there is a significant risk of thrombosis
    • All the complications of large-bore arterial and venous access
    • Can increase LV afterload and cause LV dilatation

    Impella microaxial flow pump

    Traverses the aortic valve, pumping blood from the LV into the aorta

    • Can be inserted percutaneously
    • Decompresses LV, decreases afterload 
    • Capable of substantial cardiac output (~ 5L)
    • Placement requires skill set which is not widely available
    • Expensive even for an ECMO type device
    • May not achieve enough cardiac output to satisfy demand
    • Does not oxygenate the blood

    References

    Cove, Matthew E., and Graeme MacLaren. "Clinical review: mechanical circulatory support for cardiogenic shock complicating acute myocardial infarction." Crit Care 14.5 (2010): 235.

    Boehmer, John P., and Eric Popjes. "Cardiac failure: mechanical support strategies." Critical care medicine 34.9 (2006): S268-S277.

    Cooper, David S., et al. "Cardiac extracorporeal life support: state of the art in 2007." Cardiology in the young 17.S4 (2007): 104-115.

    Brignole, Michele, et al. "2013 ESC Guidelines on cardiac pacing and cardiac resynchronization therapy." European heart journal (2013): eht150.